Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary purpose of handwashing?

• A. To promote hand circulation
• B. To prevent the transfer of microorganisms
• C. To avoid touching the client with a dirty hand
• D. To provide comfort

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of handwashing is to prevent the transfer of microorganisms. Proper hand hygiene helps reduce the risk of spreading harmful bacteria and viruses, thus promoting overall health and preventing infections. Choice A is incorrect as handwashing primarily focuses on cleanliness rather than promoting circulation. Choice C is incorrect as it implies that the main concern is avoiding client discomfort rather than preventing infection. Choice D is incorrect as while handwashing can be comforting in some situations, its primary purpose is not to provide comfort but to maintain hygiene.

2. A client is in a seclusion room following violent behavior and continues to display aggressive behavior. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Confront the client about this behavior.
• B. Express sympathy for the client's situation.
• C. Speak assertively to the client.
• D. Stand within 30 cm (1 ft) of the client when speaking with them.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client in a seclusion room following violent behavior continues to display aggression, it is essential for the nurse to confront the client about this behavior. Confrontation can help set boundaries, address the behavior, and ensure the safety of both the client and the healthcare team. Expressing sympathy (Choice B) may not address the immediate need for behavior management. Speaking assertively (Choice C) can be important but should be coupled with addressing the specific behavior. Standing within close proximity (Choice D) of an aggressive client can escalate the situation and compromise safety, so it is not the appropriate action to take.

3. The healthcare provider orders an IV solution of dextrose 5% in water at 100ml/hour. What would the flow rate be if the drop factor is 15 gtt = 1 ml?

• A. 5 gtt/minute
• B. 13 gtt/minute
• C. 25 gtt/minute
• D. 50 gtt/minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the flow rate in drops per minute, multiply the ordered volume per hour by the drop factor (100 ml/hour x 15 gtt/ml = 1500 gtt/hour). Then, divide the result by 60 minutes to convert it to drops per minute (1500 gtt/hour ÷ 60 minutes = 25 gtt/minute). Therefore, the correct answer is 25 gtt/minute.

4. A client is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Prime IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
• B. Use a 24-gauge IV catheter
• C. Obtain filterless IV tubing
• D. Place blood in the warmer for 1 hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prior to administering a blood transfusion, it is essential to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride to prevent hemolysis of the blood cells. Using a smaller gauge IV catheter (e.g., 20 or 22 gauge) is recommended for blood transfusions to prevent hemolysis. Filterless IV tubing is contraindicated for blood transfusions as it does not have a filter to trap potential blood clots or debris. Warming blood is unnecessary and could lead to the development of bacteria in the blood product. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.

5. If a patient's blood pressure is 150/96, what is his pulse pressure?

• A. 54
• B. 96
• C. 150
• D. 246

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pulse pressure is calculated by subtracting the diastolic pressure from the systolic pressure. In this case, the systolic pressure is 150 and the diastolic pressure is 96. Therefore, the pulse pressure is 150 - 96 = 54. Pulse pressure represents the force generated by the heart with each contraction and is an important indicator of cardiovascular health.

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