ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. What is the primary purpose of handwashing?
- A. To promote hand circulation
- B. To prevent the transfer of microorganisms
- C. To avoid touching the client with a dirty hand
- D. To provide comfort
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of handwashing is to prevent the transfer of microorganisms. Proper hand hygiene helps reduce the risk of spreading harmful bacteria and viruses, thus promoting overall health and preventing infections. Choice A is incorrect as handwashing primarily focuses on cleanliness rather than promoting circulation. Choice C is incorrect as it implies that the main concern is avoiding client discomfort rather than preventing infection. Choice D is incorrect as while handwashing can be comforting in some situations, its primary purpose is not to provide comfort but to maintain hygiene.
2. Which natural body defense plays an active role in preventing infection?
- A. Yawning
- B. Body hair
- C. Hiccupping
- D. Rapid eye movements
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Body hair plays an active role in preventing infection by acting as a filter to block pathogens. It helps to prevent harmful substances from entering the body through the skin, providing a physical barrier against potential infections.
3. A healthcare provider is preparing to care for a client following chest tube placement. Which of the following items should NOT be available in the client's room?
- A. Oxygen
- B. Sterile water
- C. Enclosed hemostat clamps
- D. Indwelling urinary catheter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Following chest tube placement, an indwelling urinary catheter is not typically needed or relevant to the care provided. Chest tube placement is primarily concerned with managing pleural effusion or pneumothorax, and urinary catheterization is not directly related to this procedure. Oxygen, sterile water, and enclosed hemostat clamps are commonly used items in the care of a client with a chest tube in place, to ensure proper oxygenation, maintain drainage system integrity, and manage any bleeding that may occur. Therefore, the indwelling urinary catheter should not be available in the client's room following chest tube placement.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health records of five clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome?
- A. A client who experienced a near-drowning incident
- B. A client following coronary artery bypass graft surgery
- C. A client who has a hemoglobin of 15.1 g/dL
- D. A client who has dysphagia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe lung condition that can be triggered by various factors such as near-drowning incidents, surgeries like coronary artery bypass graft, and underlying conditions like dysphagia. Hemoglobin levels do not directly influence the risk of developing ARDS. A hemoglobin level of 15.1 g/dL falls within the normal range and does not predispose an individual to ARDS.
5. A client is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Prime IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
- B. Use a 24-gauge IV catheter
- C. Obtain filterless IV tubing
- D. Place blood in the warmer for 1 hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prior to administering a blood transfusion, it is essential to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride to prevent hemolysis of the blood cells. Using a smaller gauge IV catheter (e.g., 20 or 22 gauge) is recommended for blood transfusions to prevent hemolysis. Filterless IV tubing is contraindicated for blood transfusions as it does not have a filter to trap potential blood clots or debris. Warming blood is unnecessary and could lead to the development of bacteria in the blood product. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.
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