ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. What is the primary purpose of handwashing?
- A. To promote hand circulation
- B. To prevent the transfer of microorganisms
- C. To avoid touching the client with a dirty hand
- D. To provide comfort
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of handwashing is to prevent the transfer of microorganisms. Proper hand hygiene helps reduce the risk of spreading harmful bacteria and viruses, thus promoting overall health and preventing infections. Choice A is incorrect as handwashing primarily focuses on cleanliness rather than promoting circulation. Choice C is incorrect as it implies that the main concern is avoiding client discomfort rather than preventing infection. Choice D is incorrect as while handwashing can be comforting in some situations, its primary purpose is not to provide comfort but to maintain hygiene.
2. The healthcare professional is preparing to take vital signs in an alert client admitted to the hospital with dehydration secondary to vomiting and diarrhea. What is the best method used to assess the client’s temperature?
- A. Oral
- B. Axillary
- C. Radial
- D. Heat-sensitive tape
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most accurate method for assessing temperature in an alert client is the oral method. It provides a more reliable reflection of the body's core temperature compared to axillary or radial methods. In cases of dehydration, it is important to get an accurate temperature reading to monitor the client's condition closely. Axillary temperature may be affected by environmental factors, while radial temperature measurement is not a standard method for assessing core body temperature. Heat-sensitive tape is not a recognized method for assessing body temperature in clinical practice.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?
- A. Bradypnea
- B. Pleural friction rub
- C. Petechiae
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.
4. How many milliliters are equal to 20 cc?
- A. 2
- B. 20
- C. 2000
- D. 20000
Correct answer: B
Rationale: 1 cc (cubic centimeter) is equal to 1 ml. Therefore, 20 cc is equal to 20 ml. To convert between cubic centimeters (cc) and milliliters (ml), the values are equivalent since they both measure volume in the metric system. Choice A (2) is incorrect as it does not account for the direct conversion between cc and ml. Choice C (2000) and choice D (20000) are incorrect as they represent conversions based on a misunderstanding of the relationship between cc and ml.
5. What is the most appropriate nursing order for a patient who develops dyspnea and shortness of breath?
- A. Maintain the patient on strict bed rest at all times
- B. Maintain the patient in an orthopneic position as needed
- C. Administer high-flow oxygen immediately
- D. Encourage the patient to engage in vigorous physical activity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining the patient in an orthopneic position as needed is the most appropriate nursing order for a patient experiencing dyspnea and shortness of breath. This position helps to optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and alleviate breathing difficulties. It is a strategic intervention to enhance respiratory function in patients with respiratory distress. Choice A is incorrect because strict bed rest may not address the underlying respiratory issue effectively. Choice C is premature as administering high-flow oxygen should be based on a comprehensive assessment. Choice D is inappropriate as encouraging vigorous physical activity can exacerbate breathing problems in a patient experiencing dyspnea.
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