ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. All of the following interventions are correct when using the Z-track method of drug injection except:
- A. Prepare the injection site with alcohol
- B. Use a needle that is at least 1” long
- C. Aspirate for blood before injection
- D. Rub the site vigorously after the injection to promote absorption
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When using the Z-track method of drug injection, it is important to prepare the injection site with alcohol to ensure cleanliness, use a needle that is at least 1” long to reach the muscle tissue, and aspirate for blood before injection to verify correct needle placement. However, rubbing the site vigorously after the injection is not recommended as it can cause medication to leak into subcutaneous tissue, compromising the medication's intended absorption and efficacy.
2. The physician orders the administration of high-humidity oxygen by face mask and placement of the patient in a high Fowler’s position. After assessing Mrs. Paul, the nurse writes the following nursing diagnosis: Impaired gas exchange related to increased secretions. Which of the following nursing interventions has the greatest potential for improving this situation?
- A. Encourage the patient to increase her fluid intake to 200 ml every 2 hours
- B. Place a humidifier in the patient’s room
- C. Continue administering oxygen by high humidity face mask
- D. Perform chest physiotherapy on a regular schedule
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chest physiotherapy is the most effective intervention in cases of impaired gas exchange related to increased secretions. This technique helps mobilize and clear secretions from the airways, thereby improving gas exchange in the lungs. Placing a humidifier or administering oxygen by high humidity face mask may provide moisture but may not directly address the clearance of secretions. Encouraging increased fluid intake can help with hydration but may not address the underlying issue of impaired gas exchange due to secretions.
3. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Cyanosis
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dyspnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.
4. How many drops are equivalent to 1 tsp?
- A. 15
- B. 60
- C. 10
- D. 30
Correct answer: B
Rationale: 1 teaspoon (tsp) is equivalent to approximately 60 drops. Drops and teaspoons vary in volume and size, affecting the conversion ratio. Choice A (15 drops) is incorrect as it's a common misconception. Choice C (10 drops) and Choice D (30 drops) do not align with the standard conversion of 1 tsp to 60 drops.
5. Which of the following actions will most likely lead to a break in the sterile technique for respiratory isolation?
- A. Opening the patient’s window to the outside environment
- B. Turning on the patient’s room ventilator
- C. Opening the door of the patient’s room leading into the hospital corridor
- D. Failing to wear gloves when administering a bed bath
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Failure to wear gloves during a bed bath can potentially introduce pathogens, compromising the sterile technique necessary for respiratory isolation. Proper hand hygiene and personal protective equipment are crucial to prevent the transmission of infectious agents in such settings.
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