Nursing Elites

1. The nurse observes that Mr. Adams begins to have increased difficulty breathing. She elevates the head of the bed to the high Fowler position, which decreases his respiratory distress. The nurse documents this breathing as:

• A. Tachypnea
• B. Eupnea
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Hyperventilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Orthopnea is a condition where a person experiences difficulty breathing when lying flat but finds relief when sitting up or standing. Elevating the head of the bed to the high Fowler position helps alleviate this symptom. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, eupnea is normal breathing, and hyperventilation is breathing excessively fast or deep.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Pleural friction rub
• C. Petechiae
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.

3. When is sterile technique used?

• A. During strict isolation procedures
• B. After terminal disinfection is performed
• C. For invasive procedures
• D. When protective isolation is necessary

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sterile technique is utilized during invasive procedures to prevent the introduction of pathogens, minimizing the risk of infections. This strict approach ensures that the procedure is performed in a sterile environment, reducing the chances of contamination and subsequent complications.

4. What is another name for the knee-chest position?

• A. Genu-dorsal
• B. Genu-pectoral
• C. Lithotomy
• D. Sim’s

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The knee-chest position is correctly identified as the genu-pectoral position. In this position, a person rests on their knees and chest with the abdomen raised and the head turned to one side. This position is commonly used in medical examinations and procedures involving the rectal or pelvic areas, allowing for better visualization and access. Choice A, 'Genu-dorsal,' is incorrect as it does not refer to the knee-chest position. Choice C, 'Lithotomy,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient is lying on their back with legs flexed and feet in stirrups, commonly used during childbirth or certain surgeries. Choice D, 'Sim’s,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient lies on their left side with the right knee and thigh drawn up with the left arm placed along the back.

5. After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of furosemide (Lasix) daily, a patient begins to exhibit fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness. These symptoms probably indicate that the patient is experiencing:

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Anorexia
• D. Dysphagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness in a patient after starting furosemide therapy are indicative of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can manifest with muscle weakness, cramps, and fatigue due to alterations in neuromuscular function and decreased ATP production.

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