ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. A nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse on the purpose of administering vecuronium to a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. This medication is given to treat infection.
- B. This medication is given to facilitate ventilation.
- C. This medication is given to decrease inflammation.
- D. This medication is given to reduce anxiety.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Vecuronium is a neuromuscular blocking agent that is used to facilitate ventilation by inducing muscle paralysis, which can help improve oxygenation in patients with ARDS. It does not treat infection, decrease inflammation, or reduce anxiety. Understanding the purpose of vecuronium administration is crucial for providing safe and effective care to patients with respiratory distress.
2. When administering digoxin 0.125 mg PO to an adult client, for which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L.
- B. Apical pulse 58/min
- C. Digoxin level 1 ng/mL
- D. Constipation for 2 days
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring the digoxin level is crucial as it helps determine the drug's effectiveness and potential toxicity. A digoxin level of 1 ng/mL is within the therapeutic range. However, levels above this range can lead to toxicity, causing adverse effects like nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, and dysrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should report a digoxin level of 1 ng/mL to the provider for further evaluation and potential dose adjustment.
3. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.
4. The physician orders 10 gr of aspirin for a patient. The equivalent dose in milligrams is:
- A. 0.6 mg
- B. 10 mg
- C. 60 mg
- D. 600 mg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To convert grains (gr) to milligrams (mg), you multiply by 60. Therefore, 10 gr of aspirin is equal to 600 mg (10 gr x 60 = 600 mg). So, the correct answer is 600 mg.
5. A client is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Prime IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
- B. Use a 24-gauge IV catheter
- C. Obtain filterless IV tubing
- D. Place blood in the warmer for 1 hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prior to administering a blood transfusion, it is essential to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride to prevent hemolysis of the blood cells. Using a smaller gauge IV catheter (e.g., 20 or 22 gauge) is recommended for blood transfusions to prevent hemolysis. Filterless IV tubing is contraindicated for blood transfusions as it does not have a filter to trap potential blood clots or debris. Warming blood is unnecessary and could lead to the development of bacteria in the blood product. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.
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