a registered nurse reaches to answer the telephone on a busy pediatric unit momentarily turning away from a 3 month old infant she has been weighing t
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024

1. A healthcare provider reaches to answer the telephone on a busy pediatric unit, momentarily turning away from a 3-month-old infant she has been weighing. The infant falls off the scale, suffering a skull fracture. The healthcare provider could be charged with:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The scenario described involves a breach of duty by the healthcare provider to properly supervise the infant, resulting in harm. This failure to meet the standard of care falls under the category of malpractice, which refers to professional negligence or misconduct. Malpractice specifically applies to situations where a healthcare provider's actions or omissions deviate from the accepted standard of care, causing harm to a patient. In this case, the nurse's lack of supervision leading to the infant falling off the scale and sustaining a skull fracture would be considered malpractice.

2. A healthcare professional in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, airway compromise is a critical concern. Administering 100% humidified oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation. This intervention takes precedence over obtaining baseline ECG, obtaining blood specimens, or inserting an IV catheter, as airway management and oxygenation are fundamental in the initial assessment and management of a client with potential airway compromise.

3. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.

4. A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.

5. Which technique in physical examination is used to assess the movement of air through the tracheobronchial tree?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Auscultation. Auscultation is a technique in physical examination used to assess the movement of air through the tracheobronchial tree. During auscultation, healthcare providers listen to lung sounds using a stethoscope to detect abnormalities such as wheezing, crackles, or diminished breath sounds, which can indicate conditions affecting the airways or lungs. Palpation (Choice A) involves feeling the body for abnormalities, Inspection (Choice C) involves visual examination, and Percussion (Choice D) involves tapping on the body to produce sounds that can help in assessing underlying structures, but they are not directly used to assess air movement through the tracheobronchial tree.

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