ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. A healthcare provider reaches to answer the telephone on a busy pediatric unit, momentarily turning away from a 3-month-old infant she has been weighing. The infant falls off the scale, suffering a skull fracture. The healthcare provider could be charged with:
- A. Defamation
- B. Assault
- C. Battery
- D. Malpractice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The scenario described involves a breach of duty by the healthcare provider to properly supervise the infant, resulting in harm. This failure to meet the standard of care falls under the category of malpractice, which refers to professional negligence or misconduct. Malpractice specifically applies to situations where a healthcare provider's actions or omissions deviate from the accepted standard of care, causing harm to a patient. In this case, the nurse's lack of supervision leading to the infant falling off the scale and sustaining a skull fracture would be considered malpractice.
2. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider on the purpose of taking a bronchodilator. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''This medication can decrease my immune response.''
- B. ''I take this medication to prevent asthma attacks.''
- C. ''I need to take this medication with food.''
- D. ''This medication has a slow onset to treat my symptoms.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I take this medication to prevent asthma attacks.' Bronchodilators are commonly used to relieve bronchospasm in conditions such as asthma. This medication helps to dilate the airways, making it easier to breathe and preventing asthma attacks. The other options are incorrect: option A is inaccurate as bronchodilators do not decrease immune responses, option C is incorrect as bronchodilators are typically taken on an empty stomach for better absorption, and option D is false as bronchodilators have a rapid onset to provide quick relief of symptoms.
3. Which of the following is the correct meaning of CBR?
- A. Cardiac Board Room
- B. Complete Bathroom
- C. Complete Bed Rest
- D. Complete Board Room
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In medical terminology, 'CBR' stands for Complete Bed Rest. This term indicates the necessity for a patient to remain in bed without engaging in any physical activities beyond what is essential for daily living, to aid in the recovery process or to prevent further health complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the medical meaning of CBR.
4. The healthcare provider orders an IV solution of dextrose 5% in water at 100ml/hour. What would the flow rate be if the drop factor is 15 gtt = 1 ml?
- A. 5 gtt/minute
- B. 13 gtt/minute
- C. 25 gtt/minute
- D. 50 gtt/minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To determine the flow rate in drops per minute, multiply the ordered volume per hour by the drop factor (100 ml/hour x 15 gtt/ml = 1500 gtt/hour). Then, divide the result by 60 minutes to convert it to drops per minute (1500 gtt/hour รท 60 minutes = 25 gtt/minute). Therefore, the correct answer is 25 gtt/minute.
5. A client experiencing acute dyspnea and diaphoresis reports anxiety and difficulty breathing. Vital signs include HR 117/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.4 C (101.2 F), and blood pressure 100/54 mm Hg. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Notify the provider.
- B. Administer heparin via IV infusion.
- C. Administer oxygen therapy.
- D. Obtain a spiral CT scan.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with acute dyspnea, diaphoresis, tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, and hypotension, the priority is to ensure adequate oxygenation. Administering oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation levels and stabilize the client's condition. This intervention takes precedence over notifying the provider, administering heparin, or obtaining a CT scan, as oxygen therapy addresses the client's immediate need for respiratory support.
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