ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. How many milliliters are equal to 20 cc?
- A. 2
- B. 20
- C. 2000
- D. 20000
Correct answer: B
Rationale: 1 cc (cubic centimeter) is equal to 1 ml. Therefore, 20 cc is equal to 20 ml. To convert between cubic centimeters (cc) and milliliters (ml), the values are equivalent since they both measure volume in the metric system. Choice A (2) is incorrect as it does not account for the direct conversion between cc and ml. Choice C (2000) and choice D (20000) are incorrect as they represent conversions based on a misunderstanding of the relationship between cc and ml.
2. A healthcare professional in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Obtain a baseline ECG.
- B. Obtain a blood specimen for ABG analysis.
- C. Insert an 18-gauge IV catheter.
- D. Administer 100% humidified oxygen.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, airway compromise is a critical concern. Administering 100% humidified oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation. This intervention takes precedence over obtaining baseline ECG, obtaining blood specimens, or inserting an IV catheter, as airway management and oxygenation are fundamental in the initial assessment and management of a client with potential airway compromise.
3. Which of the following substances increase the amount of urine produced?
- A. Caffeine-containing drinks, such as coffee and cola
- B. Beets
- C. Urinary analgesics
- D. Kaolin with pectin (Kaopectate)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Caffeine is a diuretic, which means it increases urine production by promoting the excretion of water from the body through the kidneys. Therefore, substances like caffeine-containing drinks, such as coffee and cola, can lead to an increase in the amount of urine produced.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for pulmonary embolism?
- A. A client who has a BMI of 30
- B. A female client who is postmenopausal
- C. A client who has a fractured femur
- D. A client who has chronic atrial fibrillation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Postmenopausal status is not a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism. Risk factors for pulmonary embolism include obesity (BMI of 30 or higher), immobility such as having a fractured femur, and conditions like chronic atrial fibrillation that increase the risk of blood clot formation. While postmenopausal status may be associated with other health risks, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of pulmonary embolism.
5. When caring for a client who is on contact precautions, which of the following measures should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Remove the protective gown after leaving the client's room.
- B. Place the client in a room with negative pressure.
- C. Wear gloves when providing care to the client.
- D. Wear a mask when in the client's room.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Contact precautions are used for clients with known or suspected infections that are spread by direct or indirect contact. The most important measure for healthcare workers when caring for a client on contact precautions is to wear gloves when providing care. This helps prevent the transmission of infectious agents between the client and the healthcare worker. Removing the protective gown after leaving the client's room, placing the client in a room with negative pressure, and wearing a mask when in the client's room are not specific to contact precautions and may not be necessary for all clients on contact precautions.
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