ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. How many milliliters are equal to 20 cc?
- A. 2
- B. 20
- C. 2000
- D. 20000
Correct answer: B
Rationale: 1 cc (cubic centimeter) is equal to 1 ml. Therefore, 20 cc is equal to 20 ml. To convert between cubic centimeters (cc) and milliliters (ml), the values are equivalent since they both measure volume in the metric system. Choice A (2) is incorrect as it does not account for the direct conversion between cc and ml. Choice C (2000) and choice D (20000) are incorrect as they represent conversions based on a misunderstanding of the relationship between cc and ml.
2. While reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients, which infection should the nurse in a provider's office report?
- A. Herpes simplex
- B. Human papillomavirus
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Chlamydia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that requires notification and intervention due to its public health implications and potential complications if left untreated. Reporting Chlamydia is crucial to initiate appropriate treatment, prevent further spread of the infection, and provide necessary counseling to affected individuals. While other infections like herpes simplex, human papillomavirus, and candidiasis are also significant, Chlamydia is particularly important to report in this context.
3. A nurse is talking with another nurse on the unit and smells alcohol on her breath. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Confront the nurse about the suspected alcohol use.
- B. Inform another nurse on the unit about the suspected alcohol use.
- C. Ask the nurse to finish administering medications and then go home.
- D. Notify the nursing manager about the suspected alcohol use.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Confronting the nurse about the suspected alcohol use is the most appropriate action in this situation. It is essential to address the issue directly and express concerns about patient safety and potential impairment. By addressing the situation promptly, the nurse can potentially prevent harm and provide support to the colleague in need.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Hematuria
- C. Temperature 37.9�C (100.2�F)
- D. Sneezing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions are a concerning sign of respiratory distress and can indicate acute chest syndrome, a severe complication of sickle-cell anemia. It results from vaso-occlusion in the pulmonary vasculature, leading to impaired oxygenation. Prompt reporting of this symptom is crucial for early intervention to prevent further complications. Hematuria, a high temperature, and sneezing are not specific manifestations of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate notification to the provider in this context.
5. A healthcare professional in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Obtain a baseline ECG.
- B. Obtain a blood specimen for ABG analysis.
- C. Insert an 18-gauge IV catheter.
- D. Administer 100% humidified oxygen.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, airway compromise is a critical concern. Administering 100% humidified oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation. This intervention takes precedence over obtaining baseline ECG, obtaining blood specimens, or inserting an IV catheter, as airway management and oxygenation are fundamental in the initial assessment and management of a client with potential airway compromise.
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