Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following should the healthcare provider identify as a manifestation of pulmonary congestion?

• A. Frothy, pink sputum
• B. Jugular vein distention
• C. Weight gain
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pulmonary congestion is a common manifestation of left-sided heart failure. When the left side of the heart fails, blood backs up into the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion. This can result in symptoms such as frothy, pink-tinged sputum due to the presence of blood in the respiratory secretions. Jugular vein distention, weight gain, and bradypnea are also associated with heart failure, but frothy, pink sputum specifically indicates pulmonary congestion in this scenario.

2. Which of the following statements is incorrect about a patient with dysphagia?

• A. The patient will find pureed or soft foods, such as custards, easier to swallow than water
• B. Fowler’s or semi Fowler’s position reduces the risk of aspiration during swallowing
• C. The patient should always feed himself
• D. The nurse should perform oral hygiene before assisting with feeding

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The incorrect statement is that 'The patient should always feed himself.' Patients with dysphagia may require assistance with feeding due to difficulty in swallowing safely. It is essential to provide appropriate support and supervision during meal times to prevent complications such as aspiration or inadequate nutrition intake.

3. When planning care for a client with severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS), which of the following actions should not be included in the care plan?

• A. Administer antibiotics
• B. Provide supplemental oxygen
• C. Administer antiviral medications
• D. Administer bronchodilators

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS) is caused by a virus, not bacteria, and antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. Therefore, administering antibiotics would not be appropriate in the care plan for a client with SARS. The priority interventions for SARS include providing supplemental oxygen to improve oxygenation, administering antiviral medications to target the viral infection, and using bronchodilators to help with bronchospasm or airway constriction. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is a secondary bacterial infection present.

4. The healthcare professional must verify the client’s identity before the administration of medication. Which of the following is the safest way to identify the client?

• A. Ask the client for their name
• B. Check the client’s identification band
• C. State the client’s name aloud and ask the client to repeat it
• D. Check the room number

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the client's identity before administering medication is crucial to ensure patient safety. Checking the client’s identification band is the safest and most reliable method to confirm the client's identity. Identification bands are specifically designed to prevent errors in patient identification and help healthcare professionals administer care to the correct individual. Asking the client for their name (Choice A) may lead to errors if the client is unable to communicate or if there is a language barrier. Stating the client’s name aloud and asking them to repeat it (Choice C) relies on the client's ability to respond accurately. Checking the room number (Choice D) does not directly confirm the client's identity and may lead to errors if multiple patients are in the same room.

5. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?

• A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
• B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
• C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
• D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.

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