ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who has been taking lithium carbonate for the past 12 months. The provider notes a lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L. Which of the following orders from the provider should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Withhold the next dose
- B. Increase the dosage
- C. Discontinue the medication
- D. Administer the medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range for maintaining the drug's effectiveness while minimizing toxicity. Therefore, the appropriate action would be to continue administering the medication as prescribed by the healthcare provider to maintain the therapeutic effect for the client.
2. A client is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Dehydration is treated with calcium supplements.
- B. Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.
- C. Dehydration is associated with gastroesophageal reflux.
- D. Dehydration is caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dehydration can lead to an imbalance in electrolytes and cause uterine irritability, potentially leading to preterm contractions. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client on the importance of adequate hydration to reduce the risk of preterm labor. The statement 'Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor' directly addresses the client's condition and provides relevant information for their understanding and management of the situation.
3. What is another name for the knee-chest position?
- A. Genu-dorsal
- B. Genu-pectoral
- C. Lithotomy
- D. Sim’s
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The knee-chest position is correctly identified as the genu-pectoral position. In this position, a person rests on their knees and chest with the abdomen raised and the head turned to one side. This position is commonly used in medical examinations and procedures involving the rectal or pelvic areas, allowing for better visualization and access. Choice A, 'Genu-dorsal,' is incorrect as it does not refer to the knee-chest position. Choice C, 'Lithotomy,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient is lying on their back with legs flexed and feet in stirrups, commonly used during childbirth or certain surgeries. Choice D, 'Sim’s,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient lies on their left side with the right knee and thigh drawn up with the left arm placed along the back.
4. To assess the kidney function of a patient with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter, the nurse measures the hourly urine output. When should she notify the physician?
- A. Less than 30 ml/hour
- B. 64 ml in 2 hours
- C. 90 ml in 3 hours
- D. 125 ml in 4 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Notifying the physician is necessary when the urine output is less than 30 ml/hour as it indicates impaired kidney function. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring kidney function, and a urine output less than 30 ml/hour could suggest potential renal issues that require medical attention.
5. When planning care for a client with severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS), which of the following actions should not be included in the care plan?
- A. Administer antibiotics
- B. Provide supplemental oxygen
- C. Administer antiviral medications
- D. Administer bronchodilators
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS) is caused by a virus, not bacteria, and antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. Therefore, administering antibiotics would not be appropriate in the care plan for a client with SARS. The priority interventions for SARS include providing supplemental oxygen to improve oxygenation, administering antiviral medications to target the viral infection, and using bronchodilators to help with bronchospasm or airway constriction. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is a secondary bacterial infection present.
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