ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is receiving brachytherapy for treatment of prostate cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Cleanse equipment before removal from the client's room.
- B. Limit the client's visitors to 30 minutes per day.
- C. Discard the client's linens in a double bag.
- D. Discard the radioactive source in a biohazard bag
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When caring for a client receiving brachytherapy, it is crucial to handle radioactive sources appropriately. Discarding the radioactive source in a biohazard bag is essential to prevent exposure to radiation. Cleaning equipment before removal, limiting client's visitors, or discarding linens in a double bag are not specific to the management of radioactive sources in brachytherapy.
2. Palpating the midclavicular line is the correct technique for assessing
- A. Baseline vital signs
- B. Systolic blood pressure
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Apical pulse
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Palpating the midclavicular line is the correct technique for assessing the apical pulse. The apical pulse is located at the point of maximal impulse (PMI), which is typically at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line. This technique allows healthcare providers to accurately assess the heart rate and rhythm by listening to the heart sounds directly at this point.
3. The nurse observes that Mr. Adams begins to have increased difficulty breathing. She elevates the head of the bed to the high Fowler position, which decreases his respiratory distress. The nurse documents this breathing as:
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Eupnea
- C. Orthopnea
- D. Hyperventilation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Orthopnea is a condition where a person experiences difficulty breathing when lying flat but finds relief when sitting up or standing. Elevating the head of the bed to the high Fowler position helps alleviate this symptom. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, eupnea is normal breathing, and hyperventilation is breathing excessively fast or deep.
4. The healthcare provider orders an IV solution of dextrose 5% in water at 100ml/hour. What would the flow rate be if the drop factor is 15 gtt = 1 ml?
- A. 5 gtt/minute
- B. 13 gtt/minute
- C. 25 gtt/minute
- D. 50 gtt/minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To determine the flow rate in drops per minute, multiply the ordered volume per hour by the drop factor (100 ml/hour x 15 gtt/ml = 1500 gtt/hour). Then, divide the result by 60 minutes to convert it to drops per minute (1500 gtt/hour รท 60 minutes = 25 gtt/minute). Therefore, the correct answer is 25 gtt/minute.
5. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?
- A. SaO2 95%
- B. Wheezing
- C. Retraction of sternal muscles
- D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.
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