Nursing Elites

1. What is the abbreviation for micro drop?

• A. µgtt
• B. gtt
• C. mdr
• D. mgts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct abbreviation for micro drop is 'µgtt,' where the symbol 'µ' represents micro and 'gtt' stands for drop. Choice B, 'gtt,' is the abbreviation for drop, not specifically for micro drop. Choice C, 'mdr,' and Choice D, 'mgts,' are not standard abbreviations for micro drop and are incorrect.

2. When creating a plan of care for a newly admitted client with obsessive-compulsive disorder, which of the following interventions should the nurse take?

• A. Allow the client enough time to perform rituals
• B. Give the client autonomy in scheduling activities
• C. Discourage the client from exploring irrational fears
• D. Provide negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder often feel compelled to perform rituals to alleviate anxiety. Allowing the client enough time to perform these rituals can help reduce their anxiety levels and promote a sense of control. Providing autonomy in scheduling activities can also empower the client and enhance their sense of independence. Discouraging exploration of irrational fears may increase anxiety and worsen symptoms. Negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors is not recommended as it can be counterproductive and reinforce the behavior.

3. After a walk-in client enters the clinic with a chief complaint of abdominal pain and diarrhea, the nurse takes the client’s vital signs. What phase of the nursing process is being implemented by the nurse?

• A. Assessment
• B. Diagnosis
• C. Planning
• D. Implementation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is performing the assessment phase of the nursing process. Assessment involves collecting data, which includes obtaining vital signs, to identify the client's health status and needs. This step is crucial for the nurse to gather information that will guide further decision-making in the nursing process. Choice B, 'Diagnosis,' would involve analyzing the collected data to identify the client's health problems. Choice C, 'Planning,' would be developing a plan of care based on the assessment findings. Choice D, 'Implementation,' is the phase where the nurse carries out the plan of care developed during the planning phase.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for pulmonary embolism?

• A. A client who has a BMI of 30
• B. A female client who is postmenopausal
• C. A client who has a fractured femur
• D. A client who has chronic atrial fibrillation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postmenopausal status is not a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism. Risk factors for pulmonary embolism include obesity (BMI of 30 or higher), immobility such as having a fractured femur, and conditions like chronic atrial fibrillation that increase the risk of blood clot formation. While postmenopausal status may be associated with other health risks, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of pulmonary embolism.

5. When reviewing the prescriptions for a client with a pneumothorax, which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?

• A. Assess the client's pain.
• B. Obtain a large-bore IV needle for decompression.
• C. Administer lorazepam.
• D. Prepare for chest tube insertion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a pneumothorax, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain a large-bore IV needle for decompression. This intervention helps to relieve the pressure in the pleural space, allowing the lung to re-expand. Prompt decompression is crucial in managing a tension pneumothorax, which can be life-threatening. Assessing pain, administering medication, and preparing for chest tube insertion are important, but they should follow the immediate intervention of decompression in a critical situation like a tension pneumothorax.

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