Nursing Elites

1. When planning care for a client on mechanical ventilation, which mode of ventilation that increases the effort of the client's respiratory muscles should NOT be included in the plan of care?

• A. Assist-control
• B. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation
• C. Continuous positive airway pressure
• D. Pressure support ventilation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assist-control ventilation mode delivers a preset tidal volume at a set rate; however, it may not be suitable for clients who need to maintain some level of respiratory muscle activity. This mode provides full support for each breath, potentially leading to decreased respiratory muscle strength over time. Therefore, it is important to avoid using assist-control mode for clients who require increased effort of respiratory muscles to prevent muscle atrophy and promote optimal respiratory function.

2. Which of the following parameters should be checked when assessing respirations?

• A. Rate
• B. Rhythm
• C. Symmetry
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing respirations, it is essential to evaluate the rate at which breaths are taken, the rhythm of breathing patterns, and the symmetry of chest expansion. Each of these parameters provides valuable information about a person's respiratory status. Therefore, it is important to assess all of the listed parameters to have a comprehensive understanding of the individual's respiratory function.

3. When removing a contaminated gown, what should be the first thing touched by the nurse?

• A. Waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown
• B. Waist tie in front of the gown
• C. Cuffs of the gown
• D. Inside of the gown

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should ensure the first thing touched is the waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown. This procedure helps prevent contamination by ensuring that the outer surface of the gown, which is likely to be contaminated, is not touched during removal. By touching the back ties first, the nurse minimizes the risk of transferring any contaminants to themselves or the environment.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of a new prescription of prednisone to a client who has COPD. The healthcare professional should not concentrate on which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Fluid retention
• D. Black, tarry stools

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering prednisone, a corticosteroid medication, to a client with COPD, the healthcare professional should be aware of potential adverse effects. Tachycardia is not a common adverse effect of prednisone use. The correct adverse effects to monitor for include hypokalemia, fluid retention, and gastrointestinal issues like black, tarry stools due to potential gastrointestinal bleeding. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not concentrate on tachycardia but should focus on the other listed adverse effects when administering prednisone to a client with COPD.

5. What is the best position for examining the rectum?

• A. Prone
• B. Sim's
• C. Knee-chest
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The knee-chest position is the most optimal position for examining the rectum. In this position, the patient kneels on the examination table with their chest resting on it, creating a straight line from the head to the lower back. This position allows for easier access and visualization of the rectal area, making it the preferred choice for rectal examinations. Prone position (choice A) is lying face down and is not ideal for rectal exams as it does not provide good access. Sim's position (choice B) is lying on the left side with the right knee and thigh flexed, also not ideal for rectal exams. Lithotomy position (choice D) is lying on the back with legs flexed and feet in stirrups, primarily used for gynecological exams and surgery, not for rectal examinations.

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