Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. An alert chronic arthritic patient treated with steroids and aspirin
• B. An 88-year-old incontinent patient with gastric cancer who is confined to bed at home
• C. An apathetic 63-year-old COPD patient receiving nasal oxygen via cannula
• D. A confused 78-year-old patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) who requires assistance to get out of bed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elderly patient who is incontinent, bedridden, and suffering from a serious illness like gastric cancer is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers. Being bedridden and incontinent increases the pressure on certain areas of the body, leading to tissue damage and the development of pressure ulcers. Additionally, the patient's age and underlying health condition further contribute to their risk. It is crucial to identify and address such risk factors promptly to prevent the occurrence of pressure ulcers in vulnerable patients.

2. During the removal of a chest tube, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Lie on their left side.
• B. Use the incentive spirometer.
• C. Cough at regular intervals.
• D. Perform the Valsalva maneuver.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the removal of a chest tube, instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is essential. This maneuver involves holding the breath and bearing down, which helps prevent air from entering the pleural space during tube removal, reducing the risk of pneumothorax. Instructing the client to lie on their left side, use the incentive spirometer, or cough at regular intervals is not appropriate during the chest tube removal process.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing ABG laboratory results of a client who is in respiratory distress. The results are pH 7.47, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mm Hg. The healthcare professional should recognize that the client is experiencing which of the following acid-base imbalances?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The ABG results show a high pH (alkalosis) along with low PaCO2 and normal HCO3 levels, indicating respiratory alkalosis. In this condition, there is excessive loss of carbon dioxide (as seen by the low PaCO2) leading to a decrease in carbonic acid concentration and subsequent increase in pH. Metabolic acidosis or alkalosis would involve primary changes in bicarbonate levels, which are not predominant in this case.

4. When caring for a client who is to have a line placed for hemodynamic monitoring, which statement by the newly licensed nurse indicates effectiveness of the teaching?

• A. Air should be instilled into the monitoring system after the procedure.
• B. The client should be positioned on the left side after the procedure.
• C. The transducer should be level with the second intercostal space after the line is placed.
• D. A chest x-ray is needed to verify placement after the procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a line is placed for hemodynamic monitoring, it is crucial to confirm its correct placement. The definitive way to verify the placement is through a chest x-ray. This ensures that the line is appropriately positioned without complications. Options A, B, and C do not address the essential step of confirming the line's placement, making them incorrect choices.

5. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a hemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion?

• A. Hemoglobinuria
• B. Chest pain
• C. Urticaria
• D. Distended neck veins

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hemoglobinuria is a characteristic sign of a hemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion. Hemolytic reactions can lead to the destruction of red blood cells, causing the release of hemoglobin into the urine, which presents as hemoglobinuria. Chest pain, urticaria, and distended neck veins are not specific signs of a hemolytic reaction and may be associated with other conditions or reactions.

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