ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is performing a gastric lavage for a client who has upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Instill 500 ml of solution through the NG tube.
- B. Insert a large-bore NG tube.
- C. Use a cold irrigation solution.
- D. Instruct the client to lie on their right side.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a gastric lavage procedure for upper gastrointestinal bleeding, inserting a large-bore NG tube is essential to effectively remove gastric contents and blood. This tube allows for efficient irrigation and suction, aiding in the removal of harmful substances from the stomach. Instilling a large volume of solution or using a cold irrigation solution can lead to complications such as fluid overload or hypothermia. Instructing the client to lie on their right side is not directly related to the gastric lavage procedure.
2. When preparing to administer an IM injection that is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue, what is the best action to prevent tracking of the medication?
- A. Use a small gauge needle
- B. Apply ice on the injection site
- C. Administer at a 45° angle
- D. Use the Z-track technique
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The Z-track technique is the best action to prevent tracking of the medication when administering an IM injection that is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue. This technique involves pulling the skin to the side before administering the injection and then releasing the skin after the injection. By doing so, a zig-zag pathway is created, preventing the medication from leaking into the subcutaneous tissue and reducing irritation. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Using a small gauge needle may not prevent tracking of the medication. Applying ice on the injection site or administering at a 45° angle does not specifically address preventing tracking of the medication in cases where the injection is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A.
- B.
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with rheumatoid arthritis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common finding and indicates inflammation in the body. A high ESR value suggests active disease activity and potential joint damage. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report an ESR of 75 mm/hr to the provider for further evaluation and management of the client's rheumatoid arthritis.
4. Which of the following parameters should be checked when assessing respirations?
- A. Rate
- B. Rhythm
- C. Symmetry
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When assessing respirations, it is essential to evaluate the rate at which breaths are taken, the rhythm of breathing patterns, and the symmetry of chest expansion. Each of these parameters provides valuable information about a person's respiratory status. Therefore, it is important to assess all of the listed parameters to have a comprehensive understanding of the individual's respiratory function.
5. During the removal of a chest tube, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?
- A. Lie on their left side.
- B. Use the incentive spirometer.
- C. Cough at regular intervals.
- D. Perform the Valsalva maneuver.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the removal of a chest tube, instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is essential. This maneuver involves holding the breath and bearing down, which helps prevent air from entering the pleural space during tube removal, reducing the risk of pneumothorax. Instructing the client to lie on their left side, use the incentive spirometer, or cough at regular intervals is not appropriate during the chest tube removal process.
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