Nursing Elites

1. A patient is taking spironolactone (Aldactone) to control her hypertension. Her serum potassium level is 6 mEq/L. For this patient, the nurse's priority would be to assess her:

• A. Neuromuscular function
• B. Bowel sounds
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Electrocardiogram (ECG) results

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with a serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L due to spironolactone use, the nurse's priority is to assess the Electrocardiogram (ECG) results. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation, which can be detected on an ECG. While changes in neuromuscular function, bowel sounds, and respiratory rate can occur with hyperkalemia, the most critical assessment related to the patient's condition would be monitoring the ECG for signs of cardiac complications.

2. .A nurse assesses a clients peripheral IV site, and notices edema and tenderness above the site. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Apply cold compresses to the IV site.
• B. Elevate the extremity on a pillow.
• C. Flush the catheter with normal saline.
• D. . Stop the infusion of intravenous fluids.

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

3. A 73-year-old man who slipped on a small carpet in his home and fell on his hip is alert and oriented; PERRLA (pupils equally round and reactive to light and accommodation) is intact, and he has come by ambulance to the emergency department (ED). Heart rate elevated, he is anxious and thirsty. A Foley catheter is in place and 40mL of urine is present. The nurse's most likely explanation for the urine output is:

• A. The man urinated prior to his arrival in the ED and will probably not need to have the Foley catheter kept in place.
• B. The man has a brain injury, lacks ADH, and needs vasopressin.
• C. The man is in heart failure and is releasing atrial natriuretic peptide, which results in decreased urine output.
• D. He is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system that results in diminished urine output.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Renin is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys in response to decreased renal perfusion. Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, with its vasoconstrictor properties, increases arterial perfusion pressure and stimulates thirst. As the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, aldosterone is released in response to an increased release of renin, which decreases urine production. Based on the nursing assessment and mechanism of injury, this is the most likely cause of the lower urine output. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no indication of urination prior to arrival, brain injury, lack of ADH, or heart failure present in the scenario provided. The symptoms and context described point more towards a physiological response related to the sympathetic nervous system and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system rather than the other conditions mentioned.

4. During a visit to an 84-year-old woman recovering from hip surgery, the nurse notices signs of confusion and poor skin turgor. The woman mentions she limits water intake to avoid nighttime bathroom trips. The nurse should explain to the woman that:

• A. She will need her medications adjusted and be readmitted for a complete workup.
• B. Limiting fluids can lead to body imbalances causing confusion; perhaps adjusting fluid intake timing is necessary.
• C. Post-surgical confusion is common, and it's safe not to urinate at night.
• D. Confusion after surgery is typical in the elderly due to sleep loss.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In elderly patients, fluid and electrolyte imbalances can manifest with subtle signs like confusion. Limiting fluids can lead to such imbalances, affecting cognitive function. Adjusting the timing of fluid intake can help maintain hydration without causing nighttime disruptions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests unnecessary hospital readmission and medication adjustments without addressing the root cause. Choice C wrongly normalizes the confusion and fails to address the potential issue of fluid restriction. Choice D incorrectly attributes confusion solely to sleep loss without considering the impact of fluid balance.

5. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is admitted with moderate dehydration. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent injury while in the hospital?

• A. Ask family members to speak quietly to keep the client calm.
• B. Assess urine color, amount, and specific gravity each day.
• C. Encourage the client to drink at least 1 liter of fluids each shift.
• D. Dangle the client on the bedside before ambulating.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'dangle the client on the bedside before ambulating.' This intervention helps prevent orthostatic hypotension, a drop in blood pressure when changing positions, which is crucial in preventing falls and related injuries in older adult clients. Asking family members to speak quietly (Choice A) may help keep the client calm but does not directly address the risk of injury. Assessing urine parameters (Choice B) is important for monitoring hydration status but does not specifically prevent injury. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice C) is essential for managing dehydration but does not directly address the risk of injury during ambulation.

Similar Questions