Nursing Elites

1. A patient is taking spironolactone (Aldactone) to control her hypertension. Her serum potassium level is 6 mEq/L. For this patient, the nurse's priority would be to assess her:

• A. Neuromuscular function
• B. Bowel sounds
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Electrocardiogram (ECG) results

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with a serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L due to spironolactone use, the nurse's priority is to assess the Electrocardiogram (ECG) results. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation, which can be detected on an ECG. While changes in neuromuscular function, bowel sounds, and respiratory rate can occur with hyperkalemia, the most critical assessment related to the patient's condition would be monitoring the ECG for signs of cardiac complications.

2. After teaching a client to increase dietary potassium intake, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which dietary meal selection indicates the client correctly understands the teaching?

• A. Toasted English muffin with butter and blueberry jam, and tea with sugar
• B. Two scrambled eggs, a slice of white toast, and a half cup of strawberries
• C. Sausage, one slice of whole wheat toast, half cup of raisins, and a glass of milk
• D. Bowl of oatmeal with brown sugar, a half cup of sliced peaches, and coffee

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer as it includes foods high in potassium, such as raisins, whole wheat toast, and milk. Potassium is essential for various bodily functions, including maintaining proper heart and muscle function. Choices A, B, and D do not contain significant sources of potassium. Choice A consists mainly of carbohydrates and sugar, choice B focuses on protein and carbohydrates, and choice D provides carbohydrates and some fruit but lacks high-potassium options like in choice C.

3. . A nurse assesses a client who had an intraosseous catheter placed in the left leg. Which assessment finding is of greatest concern?

• A. The catheter has been in place for 20 hours.
• B. . The client has poor vascular access in the upper extremities.
• C. The catheter is placed in the proximal tibia.
• D. The clients left lower extremity is cool to the touch.

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

4. A nurse preparing to start an IV on a newly admitted patient teaches the patient about the procedure and begins to prepare the site. The nurse should always start by:

• A. Leaving one hand ungloved to assess the site
• B. Preparing the skin with an iodine solution
• C. Asking the patient if they are allergic to latex or iodine
• D. Removing excessive hair at the selected site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before preparing the skin, the nurse should ask the patient if they are allergic to latex or iodine, which are commonly used in IV therapy setup. This is crucial to prevent potential allergic reactions at the IV site or even life-threatening anaphylaxis. Leaving one hand ungloved (choice A) is not a recommended practice as both hands should be gloved for infection control. While preparing the skin with an iodine solution (choice B) is a step in the process, ensuring the patient's safety by checking for allergies comes first. Removing excessive hair at the selected site (choice D) is not necessary and can lead to skin irritation.

5. .A nurse assesses a clients peripheral IV site, and notices edema and tenderness above the site. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Apply cold compresses to the IV site.
• B. Elevate the extremity on a pillow.
• C. Flush the catheter with normal saline.
• D. . Stop the infusion of intravenous fluids.

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

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