Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of preterm labor is reviewing a new prescription for Terbutaline. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will increase my daily fluid intake to 3 quarts.
• B. I can increase my activity now that I've started on this medication.
• C. I will report increasing intensity of contractions to my doctor.
• D. I am glad this will prevent preterm labor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client should report increasing intensity, frequency, or duration of contractions to the provider because these are manifestations of preterm labor. This response demonstrates the client's understanding of the importance of monitoring contractions and seeking appropriate medical attention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing fluid intake, increasing activity, or assuming the medication will prevent preterm labor are not relevant actions in managing preterm labor or taking Terbutaline.

2. What is the therapeutic use of Phenytoin?

• A. Replacement in hypothyroidism to restore normal hormonal balance
• B. Diminished accumulation of acid in the gastric lumen with lessened gastroesophageal reflux
• C. Diminished seizure activity, termination of ventricular arrhythmias
• D. Prevention of thrombus formation, prevention of extension of existing thrombi

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Phenytoin is primarily used to diminish seizure activity and is effective in terminating ventricular arrhythmias. It works by stabilizing neuronal membranes, reducing repetitive neuronal firing, and limiting the spread of seizure activity in the brain. While phenytoin does not have a direct role in preventing thrombus formation or extending existing thrombi, it is crucial in managing seizures and certain arrhythmias.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Nausea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nausea is a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity. Along with vomiting, visual disturbances, and confusion, it can be an early indication of an overdose. Dry mouth is not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Hypoglycemia is a low blood sugar level and is not directly related to Digoxin toxicity. Tinnitus, a ringing in the ears, is not a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Healthcare providers should closely monitor clients on Digoxin for symptoms like nausea to prevent serious complications.

4. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
• B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
• C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
• D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function and potential worsening heart failure. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Weight loss, while significant, may be expected with diuretic use. A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is within normal range and can be managed. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is slightly low but not an immediate concern.

5. What are the actions of the drug metformin?

• A. Decreases hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption
• B. Increases sensitivity to insulin
• C. Short-term sedation
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metformin has dual actions by decreasing hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption, which helps in reducing blood glucose levels. Additionally, it increases sensitivity to insulin, aiding in its proper utilization within the body. Choice A is correct as metformin acts by decreasing hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption. Choice B is also correct as metformin increases sensitivity to insulin. Choice C, short-term sedation, is incorrect as metformin is not known for causing sedation. Therefore, the correct answer is D because metformin performs both of these actions.

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