ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medical history and notes that the client has a prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of Digoxin toxicity?
- A. Elevated blood pressure
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Yellow-tinged vision
- D. Ringing in the ears
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision, along with nausea, vomiting, and confusion, are common manifestations of Digoxin toxicity. Visual disturbances are important to recognize as they can indicate the need for immediate medical attention and potential adjustment of Digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. Elevated blood pressure is not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity; instead, hypotension may occur. Bradycardia is a common therapeutic effect of Digoxin rather than a sign of toxicity. Ringing in the ears, or tinnitus, is also a potential side effect of Digoxin but is less specific to toxicity compared to yellow-tinged vision.
2. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is monitoring serum electrolytes for four older adult clients who take digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte values increases a client's risk for Digoxin toxicity?
- A. Calcium 9.2 mg/dL
- B. Calcium 10.3 mg/dL
- C. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L
- D. Potassium 4.8 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.4 mEq/L. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L is below the expected reference range and puts a client at risk for digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can lead to fatal dysrhythmias, especially in older clients taking Digoxin, as potassium plays a crucial role in the heart's electrical activity. Choices A and B are related to calcium levels, which do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Choice D, Potassium 4.8 mEq/L, is within the expected reference range and would not increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity.
3. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's health record notes a new prescription for Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The healthcare professional should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?
- A. Single
- B. Stat
- C. Routine
- D. Standing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A routine prescription indicates that the medication is to be administered on a regular schedule, typically daily, without a specified termination date or a specific number of doses. In this case, Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily is to be given regularly until the healthcare provider decides to discontinue it. This type of prescription is common for medications that are part of the client's ongoing treatment regimen. The other choices are incorrect: 'Single' does not provide information about the frequency or duration of administration, 'Stat' indicates an urgent, one-time administration, and 'Standing' refers to a prescription that is automatically renewed without the need for a new order for each administration.
4. A client is receiving treatment with bevacizumab. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Bevacizumab is known to cause hypertension as a common adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client's blood pressure to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choice B, hypokalemia, is not typically associated with bevacizumab treatment. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of bevacizumab. Choice D, hypocalcemia, is not a recognized side effect of bevacizumab.
5. Which of the following is not a common effect of Midazolam?
- A. Amnesia
- B. Decreased respiratory function
- C. Anesthetic
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Midazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for its sedative, anxiolytic, and amnestic effects. While dizziness can be a side effect of Midazolam, it is not a primary or common effect. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it deviates from the typical effects associated with Midazolam.
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