Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medical history and notes that the client has a prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Yellow-tinged vision
• D. Ringing in the ears

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision, along with nausea, vomiting, and confusion, are common manifestations of Digoxin toxicity. Visual disturbances are important to recognize as they can indicate the need for immediate medical attention and potential adjustment of Digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. Elevated blood pressure is not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity; instead, hypotension may occur. Bradycardia is a common therapeutic effect of Digoxin rather than a sign of toxicity. Ringing in the ears, or tinnitus, is also a potential side effect of Digoxin but is less specific to toxicity compared to yellow-tinged vision.

2. A client is starting to take amitriptyline. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urinary retention. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, can cause relaxation of the bladder sphincter muscles, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for urinary retention is crucial as it is a common anticholinergic effect associated with this medication. Diarrhea (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline. Bradycardia (choice C) is more commonly associated with beta-blockers rather than tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline. Dry cough (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.

3. A healthcare professional is administering a Dopamine infusion at a low dose to a client with severe heart failure. Which of the following findings is an expected effect of this medication?

• A. Lowered heart rate
• B. Increased myocardial contractility
• C. Decreased conduction through the AV node
• D. Vasoconstriction of renal blood vessels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dopamine, when administered at a low dose, is expected to increase myocardial contractility by stimulating beta1 receptors. This positive inotropic effect leads to an increase in cardiac output. Therefore, the correct answer is increased myocardial contractility, as it is a desired effect of administering dopamine to a client with severe heart failure.

4. A client is starting therapy with Metformin. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Take this medication with your first bite of food.
• B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Take this medication before bedtime.
• D. Take this medication every other day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take this medication with your first bite of food.' Metformin should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and ensure better absorption. By taking the medication with the first bite of food, the client can help minimize potential stomach upset and improve the drug's effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because taking Metformin on an empty stomach can increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to take Metformin before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because Metformin is typically taken daily, not every other day, as prescribed by the healthcare provider.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

• A. Butorphanol has a lower risk of abuse than morphine.
• B. Butorphanol causes a lower incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
• C. Butorphanol can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
• D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist/antagonist that can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals. Symptoms of abstinence syndrome can include abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. This occurs because butorphanol competes with and displaces opioid agonists from receptors, leading to withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol does not have a lower risk of abuse than morphine, it can cause respiratory depression similar to other opioids, and although it is an opioid antagonist, it does not get reversed by opioid antagonists.

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