Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving Gentamicin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess for nephrotoxicity?

• A. Serum sodium.
• B. Serum creatinine.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Serum glucose.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is receiving Gentamicin, the nurse should monitor serum creatinine levels to assess for nephrotoxicity. Gentamicin is known to potentially cause nephrotoxicity, leading to impaired kidney function. Monitoring serum creatinine levels helps in early detection of any kidney damage or dysfunction. Serum sodium, serum potassium, and serum glucose levels are not directly related to nephrotoxicity caused by Gentamicin, so they are not the appropriate values to monitor in this case.

2. Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Spironolactone
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide
• D. Bumetanide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Spironolactone is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by antagonizing the aldosterone receptor, leading to potassium retention and sodium excretion. This mechanism makes it a suitable choice for conditions where potassium retention is desired, such as in patients with heart failure or liver cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, and bumetanide are loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics, respectively, which promote the excretion of potassium.

3. A client is being taught about a new prescription for Escitalopram to treat generalized anxiety disorder. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take the medication with food.
• B. I will monitor my blood sugar levels while taking this medication.
• C. I need to discontinue this medication slowly.
• D. I can crush this medication before swallowing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When discontinuing Escitalopram, the client should taper the medication slowly according to a prescribed dosing schedule to reduce the risk of withdrawal syndrome. Abruptly stopping the medication can lead to withdrawal symptoms, so it is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions for gradual discontinuation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Escitalopram should not necessarily be taken with food, there is no direct correlation with blood sugar levels, and the medication should not be crushed before swallowing.

4. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication before bed.
• B. Monitor for increased blood pressure.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Monitor for leg cramps.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for leg cramps.' Leg cramps may indicate hypokalemia, an adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide, and should be reported to the provider. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is usually taken in the morning to avoid nocturia. Choice B is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that helps lower blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide can be taken with or without food.

5. Which adverse reaction poses the greatest life-threatening risk when taking Omeprazole?

• A. Chest pain
• B. Constipation
• C. Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea
• D. Acute interstitial nephritis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most life-threatening adverse reaction associated with Omeprazole is Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea. This condition can be severe and life-threatening due to the potential for dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and complications such as toxic megacolon. Chest pain, constipation, and acute interstitial nephritis are potential side effects of Omeprazole but are not considered as life-threatening as Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea. Monitoring for signs of this adverse reaction is crucial, and immediate medical attention should be sought if symptoms develop.

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