a nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed isosorbide mononitrate for chronic stable angina and develops reflex tachycardi which of the followin
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients experiencing tachycardia, including those with reflex tachycardia induced by medications like Isosorbide Mononitrate. Furosemide (Choice A) is a diuretic and is not indicated for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used in chronic angina but does not address tachycardia.

2. A client has a new prescription for Buspirone to treat Anxiety. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should educate the client that Buspirone has a low risk for physical or psychological dependence or tolerance. This information is crucial for the client to understand the medication's safety profile and potential risks associated with long-term use.

3. A client has a new prescription for Metoclopramide to treat nausea. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Reporting restlessness or involuntary movements is crucial as they can be signs of extrapyramidal symptoms, a potential side effect of Metoclopramide. These symptoms should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking the medication before bedtime, discontinuing it due to drowsiness, or expecting urine color changes are not relevant teaching points for Metoclopramide use.

4. A client is receiving daily doses of Oprelvekin. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Oprelvekin is a medication that stimulates platelet production. Therefore, monitoring the platelet count is essential to assess the effectiveness of this drug. The expected outcome for oprelvekin therapy is a platelet count greater than 50,000/mm^3. Changes in platelet count can indicate the response to the medication and help in adjusting the treatment plan accordingly. Monitoring hemoglobin, absolute neutrophil count, or total white blood cell count is not directly related to the mechanism of action of Oprelvekin and therefore would not provide accurate information on the drug's effectiveness.

5. A client has a new prescription for combination oral NRTIs for the treatment of HIV. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. NRTI antiretroviral medications inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, which is essential for HIV replication. By blocking this enzyme, the medications prevent the virus from replicating and spreading. This mechanism of action helps to control the progression of HIV infection in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because NRTIs do not work by preventing protein synthesis, weakening the cell wall of the virus, or blocking HIV entry into cells. These mechanisms are associated with different classes of antiretroviral medications used in HIV treatment.

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