ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver?
- A. 22 gtt/min
- B. 24 gtt/min
- C. 20 gtt/min
- D. 18 gtt/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), you can use the formula: (Volume in mL x Drop factor) / Time in minutes = Flow rate in gtt/min. In this case, it would be (100 mL x 10 gtt/mL) / 45 min = 22 gtt/min. Therefore, the healthcare professional should adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver 22 gtt/min. Choice B, 24 gtt/min, is incorrect as it results from a miscalculation. Choices C and D, 20 gtt/min and 18 gtt/min respectively, are also incorrect calculations based on the given parameters.
2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine to a client for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare provider's priority?
- A. Respiratory rate
- B. Pain level
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Level of consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority assessment for a healthcare provider preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine is the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression as a significant adverse effect, so monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence over other assessments because respiratory depression can lead to serious complications. While pain level, blood pressure, and level of consciousness are important assessments, they are not the priority when administering Morphine, as the risk of respiratory depression is a more immediate concern.
3. A client has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the instructions?
- A. I will clean the site with an alcohol swab before applying the patch.
- B. I will rotate the application sites weekly.
- C. I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair.
- D. I will place the new patch where the old patch was.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because applying the patch to an area of skin without hair ensures better absorption of the medication. Hair can interfere with the patch's adherence and effectiveness. It is important for the client to choose a clean, hairless area for proper medication delivery. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Cleaning the site with an alcohol swab is a good practice but does not specifically indicate understanding of proper patch application. Rotating application sites weekly is important to prevent skin irritation but is not directly related to applying the patch to an area of skin without hair. Placing the new patch where the old patch was may lead to skin irritation and poor absorption of the medication.
4. A healthcare professional is planning to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Monitor for seizures and confusion with repeated doses.
- B. Protect the client's skin from severe diarrhea that occurs with morphine.
- C. Withhold this medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min.
- D. Administer Morphine intermittently via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the healthcare professional should take when administering Morphine IV to a postoperative client is to withhold the medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min. Respiratory depression is a common adverse effect of opioids like Morphine. Administering opioids when the respiratory rate is already compromised can further depress breathing, leading to life-threatening complications. Monitoring for seizures and confusion (Choice A) is not directly related to Morphine administration. Protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea (Choice B) is not a common side effect of morphine. Administering Morphine via IV bolus (Choice D) should be done carefully but is not the most critical action in this scenario.
5. When starting therapy with bicalutamide, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Muscle pain
- B. Flushing
- C. Gynecomastia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gynecomastia. Bicalutamide, due to its antiandrogenic properties, can lead to gynecomastia in clients. This condition involves the development of breast tissue in males and is an important adverse effect to monitor when taking this medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Muscle pain and flushing are not commonly associated with bicalutamide use. Hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of bicalutamide therapy.
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