Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• C. Change positions slowly.
• D. Take this medication with meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these adverse effects and ensures the client's safety. Option A is incorrect because Furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disturbed sleep due to frequent urination. Option B is incorrect as Furosemide can cause potassium loss, so advising to avoid foods high in potassium would not be appropriate. Option D is incorrect because taking Furosemide with meals may increase the risk of side effects and decrease its effectiveness.

2. A client is taking Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?

• A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
• C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
• D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is considered elevated and should be reported to the provider for further assessment and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not directly affected by Spironolactone and do not typically require immediate reporting unless there are other underlying issues or specific instructions for those electrolytes.

3. What is the expected outcome of Valproate therapy?

• A. Decreased fever
• B. Decreased sense of anxiety
• C. Decreased blood pressure
• D. Decreased seizure activity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased seizure activity. Valproate is commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy to help control and reduce seizure frequency. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Valproate is not primarily used to treat fever, anxiety, or blood pressure issues.

4. A caregiver is being instructed by the healthcare provider of an adolescent client who has a new prescription for Albuterol, PO. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. You can take this medication to relieve an acute asthma attack.'
• B. Tremors are a potential adverse effect of this medication.'
• C. Long-term use of this medication can lead to hyperglycemia.'
• D. This medication can potentially slow the rate of skeletal growth.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tremors are a possible adverse effect of Albuterol due to its stimulation of beta2 receptors in skeletal muscles. It is important for the healthcare provider to educate the caregiver about potential side effects to enhance safety and monitoring of the adolescent client.

5. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?

• A. I am constipated frequently.
• B. I have been urinating more frequently.
• C. My skin is peeling.
• D. I have ringing in my ears.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down bowel movements and lead to constipation as a side effect. Therefore, the client reporting frequent constipation should alert the nurse to a potential adverse effect of Verapamil. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with Verapamil use. Increased urination is not a common side effect of Verapamil, peeling skin is more likely related to a dermatological issue, and ringing in the ears is not a known adverse effect of Verapamil.

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