Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• C. Change positions slowly.
• D. Take this medication with meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these adverse effects and ensures the client's safety. Option A is incorrect because Furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disturbed sleep due to frequent urination. Option B is incorrect as Furosemide can cause potassium loss, so advising to avoid foods high in potassium would not be appropriate. Option D is incorrect because taking Furosemide with meals may increase the risk of side effects and decrease its effectiveness.

2. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which preexisting condition can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?

• A. Peptic ulcer disease
• B. Breast cancer
• C. Diabetes mellitus
• D. Schizophrenia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ketamine can produce psychological effects like hallucinations. Patients with schizophrenia may be more prone to experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms when exposed to Ketamine due to its potential to worsen psychotic symptoms. Therefore, schizophrenia can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for the use of Ketamine.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being taught strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the client to minimize anticholinergic effects?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
• B. Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.
• C. Use cooling measures to decrease fever.
• D. Take an antacid to relieve nausea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chewing sugarless gum is an effective strategy to manage dry mouth, a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. By stimulating saliva production, sugarless gum helps to moisten the mouth and alleviate the discomfort associated with dryness. This intervention can improve the client's oral health and overall comfort while taking the medication. The other options are not directly related to alleviating anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia does not address anticholinergic effects specifically. Using cooling measures to decrease fever is not relevant to managing dry mouth caused by anticholinergic effects. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea is unrelated to managing dry mouth, which is the focus of anticholinergic effects.

4. A client has a new prescription for Metronidazole. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Increase your intake of green, leafy vegetables.
• D. Discontinue the medication if you experience a metallic taste.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Metronidazole is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol, resulting in severe nausea, vomiting, and other adverse effects. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to refrain from consuming alcohol during treatment to prevent these potential complications. Choice B is incorrect because Metronidazole can be taken with or without food. Choice C is irrelevant as there is no specific requirement to increase green, leafy vegetable intake with Metronidazole. Choice D is incorrect as a metallic taste is a known side effect of Metronidazole but does not necessarily indicate the need to discontinue the medication.

5. A client is taking lisinopril. Which of the following outcomes indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. Decreased blood pressure
• B. Increase in HDL cholesterol
• C. Prevention of bipolar manic episodes
• D. Improved sexual function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The therapeutic effect of lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is indicated by a decrease in blood pressure. Lisinopril works by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. Monitoring and achieving a decrease in blood pressure is a key outcome when managing hypertension with lisinopril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lisinopril is not intended to increase HDL cholesterol, prevent bipolar manic episodes, or improve sexual function. Therefore, the correct outcome indicating the therapeutic effect of lisinopril is a decrease in blood pressure.

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