a nurse is caring for a client who is taking somatropin to stimulate growth the nurse should plan to monitor the clients urine for which of the follo
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth. The healthcare provider should plan to monitor the client's urine for which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, monitoring calcium levels in the urine is crucial. Excessive calcium excretion can occur in the urine of clients taking Somatropin, increasing the risk of renal calculi. Therefore, monitoring calcium levels is essential to assess for potential kidney stone formation. Bilirubin, protein, and potassium are not specifically monitored in the urine of clients taking Somatropin for growth stimulation.

2. A client has a new prescription for a combination of oral NRTIs (abacavir, lamivudine, and zidovudine) for the treatment of HIV. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The NRTI antiretroviral medications this client is prescribed work by inhibiting the enzyme reverse transcriptase, thus preventing HIV replication. By inhibiting this crucial enzyme, the drug interferes with the virus's ability to replicate and spread in the body. Choice A is incorrect because NRTIs do not block HIV entry into cells. Choice B is incorrect as NRTIs do not weaken the cell wall of the virus. Choice D is incorrect as NRTIs do not prevent protein synthesis within the HIV cell.

3. A client is prescribed Amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should assess the client for swelling in the lower extremities, a common manifestation of this side effect. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to ensure early detection and appropriate management. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Amlodipine. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is not typically associated with Amlodipine use. Hypertension (Choice D) is the condition for which Amlodipine is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect of the medication.

4. While caring for a client on long-term aspirin therapy, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Long-term aspirin therapy can increase the risk of hemorrhagic stroke due to its antiplatelet effects, which can lead to bleeding complications. Aspirin inhibits platelet function, potentially causing bleeding in the brain and increasing the risk of a hemorrhagic stroke. Choice B, thromboembolic stroke, is incorrect because aspirin therapy is actually used to prevent thromboembolic events by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Choices C and D, iron deficiency anemia and neutropenia, are not directly associated with long-term aspirin therapy.

5. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause xerostomia (dry mouth) due to its effect on reducing salivary flow. Monitoring for dry mouth is important as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort for the client. Diarrhea, insomnia, and hypertension are not typically associated with clonidine use, making them less likely adverse effects to monitor for in this scenario.

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