Nursing Elites

1. A client is being taught about taking Tetracycline to treat a GI infection caused by Helicobacter pylori. Which of the following statements should indicate to the nurse that the client understands the instructions?

• A. I will take this medication with 8 ounces of milk.
• B. I will inform my doctor if I experience diarrhea.
• C. I can discontinue this medication when I feel completely well.
• D. I can take this medication just before bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Diarrhea can indicate the development of a suprainfection, which can be serious. Therefore, it is essential for the client to notify the healthcare provider if they experience diarrhea while taking Tetracycline to treat a GI infection caused by Helicobacter pylori. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Tetracycline with milk can reduce its absorption, discontinuing the medication prematurely can lead to treatment failure, and taking it just before bedtime may increase the risk of esophageal irritation due to the potential reflux of the medication.

2. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum sodium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing potassium excretion through the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect hyperkalemia early and prevent adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril is not known to significantly impact sodium, calcium, or magnesium levels in the same way it affects potassium levels.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being taught strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the client to minimize anticholinergic effects?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
• B. Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.
• C. Use cooling measures to decrease fever.
• D. Take an antacid to relieve nausea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chewing sugarless gum is an effective strategy to manage dry mouth, a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. By stimulating saliva production, sugarless gum helps to moisten the mouth and alleviate the discomfort associated with dryness. This intervention can improve the client's oral health and overall comfort while taking the medication. The other options are not directly related to alleviating anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia does not address anticholinergic effects specifically. Using cooling measures to decrease fever is not relevant to managing dry mouth caused by anticholinergic effects. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea is unrelated to managing dry mouth, which is the focus of anticholinergic effects.

4. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

• A. Ketamine
• B. Naltrexone
• C. Flumazenil
• D. Fluvoxamine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist that can reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation, administering Flumazenil can help counteract the excessive sedation and other effects of Diazepam, thereby promoting the client's recovery and preventing potential complications. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist, not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.

5. A healthcare professional is educating a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. Report any signs of bleeding to your healthcare provider.
• C. Use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
• D. Use an electric razor to prevent cuts.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement that the healthcare professional should include when educating a client prescribed warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding to their healthcare provider. Bleeding can indicate excessive anticoagulation, which is a serious side effect of warfarin. Prompt reporting of bleeding symptoms is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While avoiding foods high in vitamin K may be important when taking warfarin due to its interaction with the medication, it is not the priority over reporting signs of bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush and electric razor are general precautions for individuals on anticoagulants but are not as critical as reporting bleeding symptoms.

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