a nurse is teaching a client about taking tetracycline to treat a gi infection due to helicobacter pylori which of the following statements should the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024

1. A client is being taught about taking Tetracycline to treat a GI infection caused by Helicobacter pylori. Which of the following statements should indicate to the nurse that the client understands the instructions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Diarrhea can indicate the development of a suprainfection, which can be serious. Therefore, it is essential for the client to notify the healthcare provider if they experience diarrhea while taking Tetracycline to treat a GI infection caused by Helicobacter pylori. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Tetracycline with milk can reduce its absorption, discontinuing the medication prematurely can lead to treatment failure, and taking it just before bedtime may increase the risk of esophageal irritation due to the potential reflux of the medication.

2. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.

3. A healthcare professional is planning to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare professional should take when administering Morphine IV to a postoperative client is to withhold the medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min. Respiratory depression is a common adverse effect of opioids like Morphine. Administering opioids when the respiratory rate is already compromised can further depress breathing, leading to life-threatening complications. Monitoring for seizures and confusion (Choice A) is not directly related to Morphine administration. Protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea (Choice B) is not a common side effect of morphine. Administering Morphine via IV bolus (Choice D) should be done carefully but is not the most critical action in this scenario.

4. A healthcare provider is planning to administer Ciprofloxacin IV to a client who has cystitis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin should be infused over 60 minutes to minimize vein irritation and reduce the risk of adverse effects. Administering a concentrated solution can lead to vein irritation and potential complications. Infusing the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing can cause incompatibility issues. Choosing a small peripheral vein may not be suitable for administering Ciprofloxacin, which should be infused through a larger vein to prevent vein irritation and ensure a proper dilution of the medication.

5. A client has Diabetes Mellitus, Pulmonary Tuberculosis, and a new prescription for Isoniazid. Which of the following supplements should the nurse expect to administer to prevent an adverse effect of INH?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pyridoxine is administered with Isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy, a common adverse effect of the drug. It is essential to provide this supplement to the client to minimize the risk of developing this adverse effect. Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) is not typically given to prevent INH adverse effects. Folic acid and Cyanocobalamin are not commonly administered with INH for this purpose.

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