ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client has a new prescription for methotrexate to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis. The nurse should expect to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Insomnia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Bone marrow suppression
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is bone marrow suppression. Methotrexate can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Monitoring for signs of decreased blood cell counts is crucial to prevent complications. Insomnia (choice A), hypertension (choice B), and constipation (choice D) are not typically associated with methotrexate use for Rheumatoid Arthritis.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for Digoxin and takes multiple other medications. Which of the following medications, when used concurrently with Digoxin, places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?
- A. Phenytoin
- B. Verapamil
- C. Warfarin
- D. Aluminum hydroxide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium-channel blocker, can increase digoxin levels, leading to Digoxin toxicity. When these medications are used together, the client is at an increased risk. Phenytoin (Choice A) does not significantly impact digoxin levels. Warfarin (Choice C) and aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct choice is Verapamil (Choice B) due to its potential to raise digoxin levels and cause toxicity.
3. A client with thrombophlebitis receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?
- A. It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level.
- B. A pharmacist is the person to answer that question.
- C. Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.
- D. The oral medication you will take after this IV will dissolve the clot.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C. Heparin does not dissolve clots; it prevents new clots from forming. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots, rather than directly dissolving them. The client should be informed that the purpose of heparin therapy is to prevent the clot from getting larger and to reduce the risk of new clots forming. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A talks about reaching a therapeutic blood level of heparin, which is not related to clot dissolution. Choice B deflects the question to a pharmacist without providing relevant information. Choice D inaccurately suggests that an oral medication will dissolve the clot, which is not the mechanism of action for heparin.
4. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Increase your intake of bananas and oranges.
- B. Limit your intake of calcium-rich foods.
- C. Avoid drinking milk.
- D. Increase your intake of green, leafy vegetables.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Increase your intake of bananas and oranges.' Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss leading to hypokalemia. To prevent this, clients should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods, such as bananas and oranges, to replenish potassium levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because limiting calcium-rich foods or avoiding milk is not necessary with Furosemide, and increasing intake of green, leafy vegetables does not specifically address the potential potassium loss associated with this medication.
5. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Weight gain
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Dry cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. If the client experiences this, it is important to notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.
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