Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Buspirone to treat Anxiety. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Expect optimal therapeutic effects within 24 hours.
• C. Take this medication daily for anxiety.
• D. This medication has a low risk for dependency.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should educate the client that Buspirone has a low risk for physical or psychological dependence or tolerance. This information is crucial for the client to understand the medication's safety profile and potential risks associated with long-term use.

2. What should you assess for in a patient who is on Valproate?

• A. Suicidal thoughts
• B. Monitor for seizures
• C. Bipolar disorder
• D. Migraines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Suicidal thoughts. When a patient is prescribed Valproate, it is crucial to assess for suicidal thoughts as it is a serious side effect associated with this medication. Valproate has been linked to an increased risk of suicidal ideation and behavior, particularly in patients with epilepsy or bipolar disorder. Monitoring for signs of depression or changes in behavior is essential to ensure patient safety and well-being. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while monitoring for seizures, managing bipolar disorder, and treating migraines are also important considerations when a patient is on Valproate, assessing for suicidal thoughts takes priority due to the serious nature of this potential side effect.

3. Which drug classes are NOT typically used to treat angina?

• A. Calcium channel blockers
• B. Organic nitrates
• C. Alpha blockers
• D. Beta blockers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Angina is primarily treated with calcium channel blockers, organic nitrates, and beta blockers. Alpha blockers are not commonly used in the treatment of angina. Calcium channel blockers help dilate blood vessels, decreasing the workload on the heart. Organic nitrates relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing the heart's workload. Beta blockers reduce the heart rate and blood pressure, decreasing the heart's demand for oxygen. Alpha blockers are more commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia.

4. The client asks the nurse about common side effects of calcium channel blockers. What should the nurse include in client teaching?

• A. Headache
• B. Constipation
• C. Epistaxis
• D. Dysuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: One of the common side effects of calcium channel blockers is a headache. This is important information for the nurse to include in client teaching as it helps the client understand potential adverse effects of the medication. Constipation, epistaxis, and dysuria are not typically associated with calcium channel blockers.

5. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Edema
• B. Constipation
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Edema. The nurse should monitor the client for edema when receiving imatinib. Imatinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, can lead to fluid retention and edema as a common adverse effect. This can manifest as swelling in various parts of the body, indicating the need for close monitoring by the nurse to prevent complications related to fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not typically associated with imatinib use. Therefore, they are not the priority adverse effects to monitor in a client receiving this medication.

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