Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Cough
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Headache
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A common adverse effect of lisinopril is a persistent dry cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause irritation in the respiratory tract, leading to a cough. Monitoring for a persistent cough is essential as it may indicate a serious adverse effect that requires medical attention. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not a common adverse effect of lisinopril. Headache (Choice C) and dry mouth (Choice D) are not typically associated with lisinopril use. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Cough.

2. When starting therapy with Lisinopril, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Tinnitus
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Cough
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cough. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. Clients should be informed to monitor for this side effect and report it to their healthcare provider if it occurs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, diarrhea, and weight gain are not commonly associated with Lisinopril therapy.

3. A client is taking oral Oxycodone and Ibuprofen. The nurse should identify that an interaction between these two medications will cause which of the following findings?

• A. A decrease in serum levels of ibuprofen, possibly leading to a need for increased doses of this medication.
• B. A decrease in serum levels of oxycodone, possibly leading to a need for increased doses of this medication.
• C. An increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications.
• D. An increase in expected adverse effects for both medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The interaction between oxycodone and ibuprofen results in an increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications. Oxycodone is a narcotic analgesic, while ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). They work through different mechanisms but complement each other in pain management. When taken together, they can enhance the pain-relieving effects of each other, providing better pain relief for the client.

4. Which of the following is not a common effect of Midazolam?

• A. Amnesia
• B. Decreased respiratory function
• C. Anesthetic
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Midazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for its sedative, anxiolytic, and amnestic effects. While dizziness can be a side effect of Midazolam, it is not a primary or common effect. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it deviates from the typical effects associated with Midazolam.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a hospitalized client who has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should the healthcare professional prepare to transfuse?

• A. Whole blood
• B. Platelets
• C. Fresh frozen plasma
• D. Packed red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the correct choice for a client with an elevated aPTT because it contains essential coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathy and prevent bleeding. It is rich in clotting factors like fibrinogen, factors V and VIII, which are crucial in maintaining proper blood clotting function. Whole blood (Choice A) is not typically used to correct coagulopathy and is more suitable for situations requiring both volume and oxygen-carrying capacity. Platelets (Choice B) are indicated for thrombocytopenia, not for correcting coagulation factors. Packed red blood cells (Choice D) are used to increase oxygen-carrying capacity in cases of anemia, not for correcting coagulopathy.

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