a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A common adverse effect of lisinopril is a persistent dry cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause irritation in the respiratory tract, leading to a cough. Monitoring for a persistent cough is essential as it may indicate a serious adverse effect that requires medical attention. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not a common adverse effect of lisinopril. Headache (Choice C) and dry mouth (Choice D) are not typically associated with lisinopril use. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Cough.

2. ACE Inhibitors are used in the treatment of all EXCEPT:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: ACE inhibitors are commonly used in the treatment of hypertension, heart failure, and diabetic nephropathy due to their ability to reduce blood pressure, improve heart function, and protect the kidneys. However, they are not indicated for hypotension as they can further lower blood pressure, worsening the condition. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choice A, hypertension, is correct as ACE inhibitors are a first-line treatment for this condition. Choice B, heart failure, is also correct as ACE inhibitors help improve heart function in patients with heart failure. Choice D, diabetic nephropathy, is correct as ACE inhibitors can slow the progression of kidney damage in diabetic patients.

3. A client has a new prescription for Omeprazole. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take this medication before meals.' Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that should be taken before meals to be most effective in reducing stomach acid production. Taking it before meals allows the medication to inhibit the proton pumps in the stomach when they are most active, leading to better control of acid secretion. Choice B is incorrect because taking Omeprazole with food may reduce its effectiveness as food can interfere with its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as Omeprazole is more effective when taken before meals. Choice D is incorrect as Omeprazole should not be taken with antacids as they can reduce its absorption.

4. A client has been prescribed a calcium channel blocker for angina. The nurse knows this medication should NOT be used with caution in combination with which drug classes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calcium channel blockers and beta blockers should be used with caution together because they can both suppress heart function, potentially leading to bradycardia, heart block, or heart failure. NSAIDs and cardiac glycosides do not have significant interactions with calcium channel blockers in the same way, so they are not typically a cause for concern when combined.

5. A client is receiving daily doses of Oprelvekin. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Oprelvekin is a medication that stimulates platelet production. Therefore, monitoring the platelet count is essential to assess the effectiveness of this drug. The expected outcome for oprelvekin therapy is a platelet count greater than 50,000/mm^3. Changes in platelet count can indicate the response to the medication and help in adjusting the treatment plan accordingly. Monitoring hemoglobin, absolute neutrophil count, or total white blood cell count is not directly related to the mechanism of action of Oprelvekin and therefore would not provide accurate information on the drug's effectiveness.

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