a nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and is receiving cyclophosphamide which of the following findings should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hemorrhagic cystitis when receiving cyclophosphamide due to its potential to cause bladder irritation and lead to this serious adverse effect. It is essential to assess for symptoms such as hematuria, dysuria, and flank pain. Monitoring for hypertension, hyperglycemia, and ototoxicity is not directly related to the side effects of cyclophosphamide.

2. A client is receiving discharge instructions for a new prescription of Warfarin. Which of the following over-the-counter medications should the client be instructed to avoid?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with Warfarin due to its antiplatelet effects. Patients on Warfarin should avoid NSAIDs like Ibuprofen and opt for alternative pain relief options to prevent potential complications such as an increased risk of bleeding. Acetaminophen (Choice A), Diphenhydramine (Choice C), and Loratadine (Choice D) are not known to significantly interact with Warfarin in terms of bleeding risk and are generally considered safe to use alongside Warfarin.

3. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking Atenolol, a beta-blocker, should monitor their blood pressure regularly to ensure the medication is effectively managing their condition. Monitoring blood pressure helps in assessing the drug's effectiveness and identifying any potential side effects that may influence blood pressure levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Atenolol at bedtime, with a high-fat meal, or increasing potassium-rich foods intake are not recommended actions associated with this medication and do not demonstrate an understanding of the teaching.

4. A client with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is to be started on intravenous rifampin therapy. The client should be informed by the nurse that this medication can cause which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Body secretions turning a red-orange color. Rifampin is known to cause body secretions, such as urine, sweat, tears, and sputum, to turn a harmless red-orange color. This is a common and expected side effect of rifampin therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Constipation is not a common adverse effect of rifampin. Black-colored stools and staining of teeth are not associated with rifampin therapy. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about the harmless red-orange discoloration that may occur with this medication.

5. A client with congestive heart failure taking digoxin refused breakfast and is complaining of nausea and weakness. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should check the client's vital signs first because nausea and weakness can be signs of digoxin toxicity. Vital signs can provide immediate information on the client's condition and help guide further interventions. Monitoring vital signs will allow the nurse to assess for bradycardia, a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Requesting a dietitian consult (choice B) may be necessary but addressing the immediate concern of toxicity is the priority. Suggesting rest before eating (choice C) may not address the underlying issue of digoxin toxicity. Requesting an antiemetic (choice D) can be considered later but is not the initial action needed in this situation.

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