Nursing Elites

1. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Hemorrhagic cystitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hemorrhagic cystitis when receiving cyclophosphamide due to its potential to cause bladder irritation and lead to this serious adverse effect. It is essential to assess for symptoms such as hematuria, dysuria, and flank pain. Monitoring for hypertension, hyperglycemia, and ototoxicity is not directly related to the side effects of cyclophosphamide.

2. A client has a new prescription for Etravirine, an NNRTI. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Take this medication at the same time every day.
• D. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in teaching the client is to take Etravirine at the same time every day. This ensures consistent blood levels and effectiveness of the medication. Consistent timing is essential to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and avoid missing doses. Choices A and B are incorrect because Etravirine should not necessarily be taken with or without food; it is more important to take it consistently. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to take Etravirine at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.

3. When teaching a client about a new prescription for Celecoxib, which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction
• B. Decreases the risk of stroke
• C. Inhibits COX-1
• D. Increases platelet aggregation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should educate the client that taking Celecoxib increases the risk of a myocardial infarction due to its suppression of vasodilation. Celecoxib belongs to the class of NSAIDs known to have cardiovascular risks, including an increased risk of heart attacks. Choice B is incorrect because Celecoxib does not decrease the risk of stroke. Choice C is incorrect because Celecoxib selectively inhibits COX-2 rather than COX-1. Choice D is incorrect because Celecoxib does not increase platelet aggregation; in fact, it inhibits platelet aggregation.

4. A healthcare provider is teaching the parents of a school-age child about transdermal Methylphenidate. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Apply one patch twice a day.
• B. Leave the patch on for 9 hours.
• C. Apply the patch to the child's waist.
• D. Use the opened tray within 6 months.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering transdermal Methylphenidate, it is important to leave the patch on for 9 hours each day to ensure the medication is effective. This duration allows for proper absorption of the medication through the skin. It is crucial for parents to follow this instruction to achieve the desired therapeutic effect for their child.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.

Similar Questions