Nursing Elites

1. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Hemorrhagic cystitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hemorrhagic cystitis when receiving cyclophosphamide due to its potential to cause bladder irritation and lead to this serious adverse effect. It is essential to assess for symptoms such as hematuria, dysuria, and flank pain. Monitoring for hypertension, hyperglycemia, and ototoxicity is not directly related to the side effects of cyclophosphamide.

2. A client is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of warfarin?

• A. Nausea
• B. Epistaxis
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Dyspepsia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Epistaxis, or nosebleeds, can be an indication of excessive anticoagulation while on warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner that helps prevent blood clots. Epistaxis can occur as a result of the blood-thinning effects of warfarin, leading to increased bleeding tendencies, including nosebleeds. Nausea, diarrhea, and dyspepsia are not typically associated with warfarin therapy; therefore, they are not the adverse effects the nurse should identify in a client receiving warfarin.

3. Which drug classes are NOT typically used to treat angina?

• A. Calcium channel blockers
• B. Organic nitrates
• C. Alpha blockers
• D. Beta blockers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Angina is primarily treated with calcium channel blockers, organic nitrates, and beta blockers. Alpha blockers are not commonly used in the treatment of angina. Calcium channel blockers help dilate blood vessels, decreasing the workload on the heart. Organic nitrates relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing the heart's workload. Beta blockers reduce the heart rate and blood pressure, decreasing the heart's demand for oxygen. Alpha blockers are more commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia.

4. A client who is withdrawing from alcohol has been prescribed Propranolol. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Increases the risk for seizure activity.
• B. Provides a form of aversion therapy.
• C. Decreases cravings.
• D. Results in mild hypertension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct information the nurse should include in the teaching is that Propranolol decreases cravings for alcohol. Propranolol is used as an adjunct medication during alcohol withdrawal to help reduce the desire for alcohol. Choice A is incorrect as Propranolol does not increase the risk for seizure activity; it can actually be used to prevent alcohol withdrawal seizures. Choice B is also incorrect as Propranolol does not provide aversion therapy. Choice D is incorrect as Propranolol is not known to result in mild hypertension.

5. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client with brain cancer experiencing headaches. Which of the following adjuvant medications is indicated for this client?

• A. Dexamethasone
• B. Methylphenidate
• C. Hydroxyzine
• D. Amitriptyline

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dexamethasone, a glucocorticoid, is indicated for clients with brain cancer experiencing headaches as it decreases inflammation and swelling. It is commonly used to reduce cerebral edema and relieve pressure caused by the tumor. Methylphenidate (Choice B) is a central nervous system stimulant used in conditions like ADHD and narcolepsy, not for brain cancer headaches. Hydroxyzine (Choice C) is an antihistamine used for anxiety and allergic conditions, not indicated for brain cancer headaches. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for depression, neuropathic pain, and migraine prophylaxis, but not typically indicated for brain cancer headaches.

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