a nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for ceftriaxone which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client has a prescription for ceftriaxone. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A rash can indicate an allergic reaction to ceftriaxone, which should be reported to the provider. It is crucial to instruct the client to discontinue the medication and seek medical attention if a rash develops to prevent potential serious adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cough is not a common side effect of ceftriaxone, ceftriaxone is typically administered parenterally, and a yellow discoloration of urine is a harmless side effect due to the color of the medication itself, respectively.

2. A client has been taking Sertraline for the past 2 days. Which of the following assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is developing Serotonin syndrome?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fever is a key symptom of serotonin syndrome, a potentially serious condition that can occur with the use of SSRIs like Sertraline. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by excessive levels of serotonin in the body, leading to symptoms such as fever, agitation, confusion, tremors, and sweating. If a client on Sertraline presents with fever, the nurse should consider the possibility of serotonin syndrome and take appropriate actions such as notifying the healthcare provider and monitoring the client closely. Bruising, abdominal pain, and rash are not typically associated with serotonin syndrome and are more likely to be indicative of other conditions or side effects.

3. A client has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding. The client should monitor for any signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, and report them promptly to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B is incorrect because Clopidogrel can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increased urination is not a common side effect of Clopidogrel. Choice D is incorrect as taking Clopidogrel with an antacid may reduce its effectiveness.

4. Which of the following is the antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity. It acts as a competitive antagonist at the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABA receptor, reversing the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. Administration of flumazenil is indicated in cases of benzodiazepine overdose or toxicity to rapidly reverse the central nervous system depression caused by these drugs. It is important to note that flumazenil should be used cautiously in patients with a history of seizures or those who are physically dependent on benzodiazepines, as it can precipitate withdrawal symptoms or seizures.

5. A client who takes Chlorpromazine for the treatment of Schizophrenia is due for a follow-up assessment. The nurse should expect the greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client takes a conventional antipsychotic medication like chlorpromazine, the greatest improvement is typically seen in positive symptoms such as disorganized speech. These medications are more effective in managing positive symptoms like disorganized speech rather than negative symptoms like impaired social interactions or hallucinations. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate improvement in disorganized speech as a positive response to chlorpromazine treatment.

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