Nursing Elites

1. A client with osteoporosis has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication with a meal.
• B. Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• C. Take the medication with a glass of juice.
• D. Take the medication with milk or food.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking alendronate is to remain upright for at least 30 minutes after administration. This is essential to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure the medication reaches the stomach properly. Remaining upright reduces the risk of side effects such as esophagitis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as alendronate should not be taken with a meal, juice, milk, or food to optimize its absorption and effectiveness.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of digoxin?

• A. Constipation
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Blurred vision is a common adverse effect of digoxin and can indicate toxicity. Monitoring for visual changes is essential to prevent serious complications in clients taking digoxin.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who is starting therapy with tamoxifen. The healthcare provider should recognize that tamoxifen is contraindicated in which of the following clients?

• A. A client with a history of deep-vein thrombosis
• B. A client with a history of migraine headaches
• C. A client with a history of hypertension
• D. A client with a history of anemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen is contraindicated in clients with a history of thromboembolic events, such as deep-vein thrombosis, due to the increased risk of blood clots forming and leading to serious complications like pulmonary embolism. Clients with a history of deep-vein thrombosis are at a higher risk of recurrent thromboembolic events when taking tamoxifen, making it unsafe for such individuals. Choices B, C, and D are not contraindications for tamoxifen therapy, as migraine headaches, hypertension, and anemia do not directly interact with tamoxifen's mechanism of action or pose significant risks when used together.

4. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?

• A. One
• B. Two
• C. Three
• D. Four

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Phenobarbital, with a long half-life of 4 days, remains at therapeutic levels in the body for an extended period. Due to this prolonged duration of action, the nurse should administer phenobarbital once a day to maintain a consistent therapeutic effect without the need for multiple daily doses. Administering the medication more than once a day would not be necessary and could increase the risk of side effects or toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer phenobarbital once a day.

5. A client is starting therapy with bicalutamide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Flushing
• C. Gynecomastia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is gynecomastia (Choice C). Bicalutamide is associated with gynecomastia due to its antiandrogenic properties. Gynecomastia, the development of breast tissue in males, is an important adverse effect to monitor when taking bicalutamide. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Muscle pain and flushing are not commonly associated with bicalutamide use. Hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of bicalutamide therapy.

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