a nurse is providing instructions to a female client who has a new prescription for zolpidem which of the following instructions should the nurse inc
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client has a new prescription for Zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Zolpidem is classified under Pregnancy Risk Category C. It is essential for the client to inform the provider if she plans to become pregnant as Zolpidem use during pregnancy may pose risks to the fetus. This precaution allows for appropriate assessment and possible adjustments to the treatment plan to ensure the safety of both the client and the developing baby. Choice B is incorrect because Zolpidem is usually taken immediately before bedtime, not 1 hour before. Choice C is incorrect as Zolpidem is known for its quick onset of action, and the client does not need to allocate a specific amount of time for sleep. Choice D is incorrect as taking Zolpidem with food, especially a bedtime snack, may delay its onset of action.

2. A client is taking lisinopril. Which of the following outcomes indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The therapeutic effect of lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is indicated by a decrease in blood pressure. Lisinopril works by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. Monitoring and achieving a decrease in blood pressure is a key outcome when managing hypertension with lisinopril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lisinopril is not intended to increase HDL cholesterol, prevent bipolar manic episodes, or improve sexual function. Therefore, the correct outcome indicating the therapeutic effect of lisinopril is a decrease in blood pressure.

3. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An adverse effect of prochlorperazine is acute dystonia, which is evidenced by spasms of the muscles in the face, neck, and tongue. Diphenhydramine is used to suppress extrapyramidal effects of prochlorperazine, making it the most appropriate choice to address the client's spasms. Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, not for acute dystonia. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose, not for acute dystonia. Phytonadione is vitamin K, used for the reversal of warfarin, not for acute dystonia.

4. During the repair of a skin laceration, a client receives a local anesthetic of Lidocaine. For which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse monitor the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Seizures are a potential adverse reaction following the administration of local anesthetics like Lidocaine. This adverse effect is important to monitor as it can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. It is crucial for the nurse to be vigilant in recognizing any signs of seizure activity to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

5. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client with brain cancer experiencing headaches. Which of the following adjuvant medications is indicated for this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dexamethasone, a glucocorticoid, is indicated for clients with brain cancer experiencing headaches as it decreases inflammation and swelling. It is commonly used to reduce cerebral edema and relieve pressure caused by the tumor. Methylphenidate (Choice B) is a central nervous system stimulant used in conditions like ADHD and narcolepsy, not for brain cancer headaches. Hydroxyzine (Choice C) is an antihistamine used for anxiety and allergic conditions, not indicated for brain cancer headaches. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for depression, neuropathic pain, and migraine prophylaxis, but not typically indicated for brain cancer headaches.

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