a nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed methotrexate to treat rheumatoid arthritis which of the following instructions should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client has been prescribed Methotrexate to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Methotrexate is hepatotoxic, and avoiding alcohol is crucial to prevent liver damage. However, Option A (Take this medication with food to prevent nausea) could also be correct, as Methotrexate commonly causes nausea, and taking it with food can help alleviate this side effect. However, the most important instruction is to avoid alcohol due to the risk of liver toxicity.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement to include in discharge teaching for a client prescribed Warfarin is to use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding, so using a soft toothbrush can help prevent gum injury and bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin, another blood-thinning medication, should generally be avoided while on Warfarin to reduce the risk of bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because clients on Warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods rather than avoid them completely. Choice D is unrelated to the medication and not a priority teaching point for a client prescribed Warfarin.

3. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving capecitabine, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count and assess for signs of infection during treatment. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use. Therefore, monitoring for neutropenia is the priority in this scenario.

4. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.

5. During discharge instructions, a client with a new prescription for Phenytoin should be advised to take which of the following actions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for Phenytoin is to brush and floss their teeth regularly. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, a condition that affects the gums. By maintaining good oral hygiene practices such as regular brushing and flossing, the client can help minimize the risk of developing this side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for medications affected by grapefruit juice metabolism, taking medication on an empty stomach is not specifically indicated for Phenytoin, and increasing calcium-rich foods is not directly related to the side effects or administration of Phenytoin.

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