ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client in the operating room received a dose of Succinylcholine. During the operation, the client suddenly develops rigidity, and their body temperature begins to rise. The healthcare provider should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Neostigmine
- B. Naloxone
- C. Dantrolene
- D. Vecuronium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in temperature are manifestations of malignant hyperthermia. Dantrolene acts on skeletal muscles to reduce metabolic activity and treat malignant hyperthermia effectively. Neostigmine (choice A) is used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers, not to treat malignant hyperthermia. Naloxone (choice B) is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose. Vecuronium (choice D) is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker and is not used to treat malignant hyperthermia.
2. A client with Hodgkin's disease is receiving Cyclophosphamide IV. Which medication should be administered concurrently to prevent an adverse effect of Cyclophosphamide?
- A. Uroprotectant agent, such as mesna
- B. Opioid, such as morphine
- C. Loop diuretic, such as furosemide
- D. H1 receptor antagonist, such as diphenhydramine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mesna, an uroprotectant agent, is administered with nitrogen mustard chemotherapy drugs like Cyclophosphamide to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis, a common adverse effect. Mesna works by binding to and inactivating the toxic metabolites of Cyclophosphamide in the bladder, thereby reducing the risk of bladder toxicity.
3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should the healthcare professional monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of heparin?
- A. PT/INR
- B. Platelet count
- C. aPTT
- D. WBC count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct test to monitor the therapeutic effect of heparin is the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Heparin's action is to prolong the clotting time, and aPTT reflects this effect. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. PT/INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, platelet count assesses for potential thrombocytopenia, and WBC count evaluates for signs of infection or inflammation, not the therapeutic effect of heparin.
4. A client is being taught about a new prescription for Escitalopram to treat generalized anxiety disorder. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take the medication with food.
- B. I will monitor my blood sugar levels while taking this medication.
- C. I need to discontinue this medication slowly.
- D. I can crush this medication before swallowing.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When discontinuing Escitalopram, the client should taper the medication slowly according to a prescribed dosing schedule to reduce the risk of withdrawal syndrome. Abruptly stopping the medication can lead to withdrawal symptoms, so it is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions for gradual discontinuation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Escitalopram should not necessarily be taken with food, there is no direct correlation with blood sugar levels, and the medication should not be crushed before swallowing.
5. A client has a prescription for Nitroglycerin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take one tablet every 15 minutes until pain is relieved.
- B. Take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three doses.
- C. Take one tablet at bedtime.
- D. Take one tablet on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct administration of Nitroglycerin involves taking one tablet at the onset of chest pain, then another tablet every 5 minutes for up to three doses. This protocol aims to relieve angina symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because waiting 15 minutes between doses may delay symptom relief. Choice C is incorrect as Nitroglycerin is not typically taken at bedtime but rather during angina episodes. Choice D is incorrect because Nitroglycerin is usually taken sublingually, so it doesn't need to be taken on an empty stomach.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access