ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply the patch to a different location each day.
- B. Remove the patch every night before bedtime.
- C. Massage the patch area gently after application.
- D. Shave the area before applying the patch.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using nitroglycerin transdermal patches is to remove the patch every night before bedtime. This practice helps prevent tolerance to the medication's effects. Continuous exposure to nitroglycerin can result in the body becoming less responsive to its therapeutic effects over time, reducing its efficacy in managing the prescribed condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Applying the patch to a different location each day does not address the issue of tolerance. Massaging the patch area gently after application is not recommended as it may alter drug absorption. Shaving the area before applying the patch is unnecessary and may increase the risk of skin irritation.
2. When teaching a patient to take their own pulse, which medication should the nurse instruct them to monitor? (Hint: if pulse is <60 or >100, the patient should contact their healthcare provider before taking the medication)
- A. Digoxin
- B. Lithium
- C. Montelukast
- D. Phenytoin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is essential for patients taking Digoxin to monitor their pulse regularly. If their pulse falls below 60 or exceeds 100 beats per minute, they should contact their healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial due to Digoxin's potential to affect heart rate, making pulse monitoring a vital aspect of patient care while on this medication.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver?
- A. 22 gtt/min
- B. 24 gtt/min
- C. 20 gtt/min
- D. 18 gtt/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), you can use the formula: (Volume in mL x Drop factor) / Time in minutes = Flow rate in gtt/min. In this case, it would be (100 mL x 10 gtt/mL) / 45 min = 22 gtt/min. Therefore, the healthcare professional should adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver 22 gtt/min. Choice B, 24 gtt/min, is incorrect as it results from a miscalculation. Choices C and D, 20 gtt/min and 18 gtt/min respectively, are also incorrect calculations based on the given parameters.
4. What is a severe adverse effect of iron supplementation?
- A. Seizures
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Edema
- D. Serotonin syndrome
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A severe adverse effect of iron supplementation is seizures. Iron toxicity can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, vomiting, bloody diarrhea, lethargy, and in severe cases, seizures. It is important for individuals taking iron supplements to follow recommended dosages to prevent adverse effects.
5. When educating a client with a new prescription for Enalapril, which manifestation should the nurse instruct the client to report as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Tremors
- B. Dry cough
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Hyperactivity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a well-known adverse effect of ACE inhibitors, such as enalapril. This cough can be bothersome and may indicate the need for a medication adjustment. It is crucial for the client to report this symptom to their healthcare provider to explore potential alternatives or adjustments to the treatment plan. Tremors, drowsiness, and hyperactivity are not commonly associated with enalapril and are less likely to be attributed to this medication.
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