a nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who is receiving iv heparin for a deep vein thrombosis the client begins vomiting bloo after the heparin h
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A patient is receiving IV heparin for a deep-vein thrombosis and begins vomiting blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Protamine is the antidote for heparin, as it reverses its anticoagulant effects. In cases of heparin overdose or if there is excessive bleeding, administering protamine can quickly neutralize the effects of heparin, helping to prevent further bleeding complications.

2. A client has been on levothyroxine therapy for several months. Which of the following findings indicates a therapeutic response to the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A therapeutic response to levothyroxine is indicated by a decrease in the level of TSH. This decrease signifies that the body requires less stimulation to produce thyroid hormone, reflecting a normalization of thyroid function due to the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as an increase in T4 levels, weight gain, and increased sleep hours are not indicative of a therapeutic response to levothyroxine therapy.

3. A client has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to eat a diet high in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Consuming foods rich in potassium can help maintain normal potassium levels in the body and counteract the potential side effect of furosemide. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning does not specifically relate to its effectiveness or side effects, avoiding foods high in magnesium is not a primary concern when taking furosemide, and limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not a general recommendation for individuals taking furosemide.

4. A client with angina is seeking a prescription for sildenafil to manage erectile dysfunction. Which of the following medications is contraindicated with Sildenafil?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Isosorbide, an organic nitrate used for angina, is contraindicated with sildenafil due to the risk of fatal hypotension. Concurrent use of these medications can lead to severe hypotension. Patients are advised to avoid taking nitrate medications for 24 hours after using isosorbide to prevent this dangerous interaction.

5. When a client is starting long-term oral prednisone for chronic asthma, what adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight gain is a common adverse effect of oral prednisone due to sodium and water retention, which can lead to fluid retention. Monitoring weight changes is important as it helps in early identification of this adverse effect, enabling timely interventions to manage it. Choice B, nervousness, is not typically associated with oral prednisone use. Bradycardia (Choice C) is unlikely as prednisone usually causes tachycardia or increased heart rate. Constipation (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone compared to weight gain.

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