Nursing Elites

1. While caring for a client taking Propylthiouracil, for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Insomnia
• C. Heat intolerance
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is taking Propylthiouracil, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as it is an adverse effect of this medication. Propylthiouracil can lead to a decrease in heart rate, which is known as bradycardia. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being while on this medication. The other options, such as insomnia, heat intolerance, and weight loss, are not commonly associated adverse effects of Propylthiouracil. Therefore, they are incorrect choices for monitoring while the client is on this medication.

2. A patient is receiving IV heparin for a deep-vein thrombosis and begins vomiting blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Vitamin K1
• B. Atropine
• C. Protamine
• D. Calcium gluconate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Protamine is the antidote for heparin, as it reverses its anticoagulant effects. In cases of heparin overdose or if there is excessive bleeding, administering protamine can quickly neutralize the effects of heparin, helping to prevent further bleeding complications.

3. Hydrochlorothiazide is classified as a

• A. Anti-inflammatory
• B. Antiarrhythmic
• C. Diuretic
• D. Antifungal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is classified as a diuretic. Diuretics are medications that help the body get rid of excess salt and water by increasing urine production, reducing fluid retention, and lowering blood pressure. Option A, Anti-inflammatory, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide does not primarily reduce inflammation. Option B, Antiarrhythmic, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is not used to correct heart rhythm irregularities. Option D, Antifungal, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is not used to treat fungal infections.

4. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

• A. Butorphanol has a lower risk of abuse than morphine.
• B. Butorphanol causes a lower incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
• C. Butorphanol can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
• D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist/antagonist that can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals. Symptoms of abstinence syndrome can include abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. This occurs because butorphanol competes with and displaces opioid agonists from receptors, leading to withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol does not have a lower risk of abuse than morphine, it can cause respiratory depression similar to other opioids, and although it is an opioid antagonist, it does not get reversed by opioid antagonists.

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