Nursing Elites

1. A client with HIV is starting therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Ringing in the ears
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequent fatigue.

2. A client is being educated about the use of Fluticasone to treat Perennial Rhinitis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should use the spray every 4 hours while I am awake.
• B. It can take as long as 3 weeks before the medication takes maximum effect.
• C. This medication can also be used to treat motion sickness.
• D. I can use this medication when my nasal passages are blocked.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because Fluticasone may show some benefits within a few hours, but its full therapeutic effect may take up to 3 weeks to be achieved in treating Perennial Rhinitis. Option A is incorrect as the frequency of Fluticasone use is usually once daily. Option C is incorrect as Fluticasone is not used for motion sickness. Option D is incorrect as Fluticasone is a preventive medication and not used for immediate relief when nasal passages are blocked.

3. A client has a new prescription for Raltegravir. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

• A. This medication prevents the virus from entering the cell.
• B. This medication prevents the virus from leaving the cell.
• C. This medication blocks the virus from attaching to the cell.
• D. This medication blocks the virus from replicating in the cell.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Raltegravir works by blocking the integrase enzyme, preventing the virus from integrating its genetic material into the host cell's DNA. By inhibiting this process, viral replication within the host cell is halted. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Raltegravir's mechanism of action specifically targets viral replication within the cell, not virus entry, exit, or attachment to the cell.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer metoprolol to a client. Which of the following findings should the provider identify as a contraindication to receiving this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Fever
• D. Rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, is contraindicated in clients with bradycardia as it can further lower the heart rate, potentially leading to more serious complications. Bradycardia is defined as a heart rate below 60 beats per minute, and administering metoprolol in such cases can exacerbate this condition, causing adverse effects on cardiac output. Hypertension, fever, and rash are not contraindications for metoprolol administration.

5. What should you assess for in a patient who is on Valproate?

• A. Suicidal thoughts
• B. Monitor for seizures
• C. Bipolar disorder
• D. Migraines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Suicidal thoughts. When a patient is prescribed Valproate, it is crucial to assess for suicidal thoughts as it is a serious side effect associated with this medication. Valproate has been linked to an increased risk of suicidal ideation and behavior, particularly in patients with epilepsy or bipolar disorder. Monitoring for signs of depression or changes in behavior is essential to ensure patient safety and well-being. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while monitoring for seizures, managing bipolar disorder, and treating migraines are also important considerations when a patient is on Valproate, assessing for suicidal thoughts takes priority due to the serious nature of this potential side effect.

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