Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving IV Dopamine for the treatment of shock. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is increased urine output. Dopamine increases cardiac output and improves renal perfusion, leading to increased urine output. This response indicates that the medication is effective in treating shock by enhancing renal function and perfusion. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because an increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased respiratory rate are not findings that indicate the effectiveness of IV Dopamine in treating shock.

2. A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.

• A. H
• B. ACE inhibitor
• C. Antifungal
• D. Beta agonist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Drugs with names ending in -pril are classified as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. These medications are commonly used to manage conditions like high blood pressure, heart failure, and diabetic kidney disease by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.

3. A school-age child has a new prescription for Atomoxetine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Kidney toxicity
• B. Liver damage
• C. Seizure activity
• D. Adrenal insufficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Liver damage is an adverse effect of Atomoxetine. The nurse should monitor for manifestations such as jaundice, upper abdominal tenderness, darkening of urine, and elevated liver enzymes. It is crucial to be vigilant for signs of liver damage to ensure early detection and intervention to prevent further complications. Kidney toxicity is not a common adverse effect of Atomoxetine. Seizure activity and adrenal insufficiency are also not typically associated with this medication.

4. When reviewing a client's health record, a nurse notes a new prescription for Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The nurse should identify this as which type of prescription?

• A. Single
• B. Stat
• C. Routine
• D. Standing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A routine prescription indicates medications to be administered on a regular schedule without a termination date or a specific number of doses. In this case, Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily falls under a routine prescription, meaning the nurse will administer this medication daily until the provider discontinues it. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A 'single' prescription is for a one-time dose, 'stat' prescriptions are for immediate administration, and 'standing' prescriptions are pre-authorized for administration as needed within specified parameters.

5. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

• A. INR of 4.0
• B. Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
• C. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
• D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.0 is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. This finding requires immediate reporting to the provider for appropriate intervention to prevent complications associated with excessive anticoagulation. Potassium, sodium, and creatinine levels are within normal ranges and are not directly related to the risk of bleeding in a client on Warfarin therapy.

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