ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is receiving IV Dopamine for the treatment of shock. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Decreased blood pressure
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Decreased respiratory rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is increased urine output. Dopamine increases cardiac output and improves renal perfusion, leading to increased urine output. This response indicates that the medication is effective in treating shock by enhancing renal function and perfusion. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because an increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased respiratory rate are not findings that indicate the effectiveness of IV Dopamine in treating shock.
2. A healthcare provider is completing a client's medical history. The client takes Simvastatin. The healthcare provider should identify which of the following disorders as a contraindication to adding Ezetimibe to the client's medications?
- A. History of severe constipation
- B. History of hypertension
- C. Active hepatitis C
- D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ezetimibe is contraindicated in patients with active moderate-to-severe liver disorders, such as active hepatitis C, especially when they are already taking a statin like simvastatin. This combination can increase the risk of liver problems and is not recommended due to the potential for further liver damage. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindications for adding Ezetimibe to the client's medications.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The provider should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?
- A. Bursitis
- B. Sinusitis
- C. Depression
- D. Glaucoma
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma, as it can worsen the condition. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, and using Oxybutynin can further elevate this pressure, potentially leading to serious complications such as vision impairment or damage to the optic nerve. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as bursitis, sinusitis, and depression are not contraindications for Oxybutynin use. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Glaucoma.
4. Which of the following is not a side effect of the vasodilator Nifedipine?
- A. Nausea
- B. Flushed appearance
- C. Vertigo
- D. Sexual dysfunction
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is not a common side effect of vasodilators such as Nifedipine. Nausea, flushed appearance, and vertigo are more commonly reported side effects associated with this medication. It's essential for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential side effects to monitor and manage them effectively in patients prescribed with Nifedipine.
5. A client with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is to be started on intravenous rifampin therapy. The client should be informed by the nurse that this medication can cause which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Constipation
- B. Black-colored stools
- C. Staining of teeth
- D. Body secretions turning a red-orange color
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Body secretions turning a red-orange color. Rifampin is known to cause body secretions, such as urine, sweat, tears, and sputum, to turn a harmless red-orange color. This is a common and expected side effect of rifampin therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Constipation is not a common adverse effect of rifampin. Black-colored stools and staining of teeth are not associated with rifampin therapy. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about the harmless red-orange discoloration that may occur with this medication.
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