a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving iv dopamine for treatment of shock which of the following findings indicates that the medication is e
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client is receiving IV Dopamine for the treatment of shock. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is increased urine output. Dopamine increases cardiac output and improves renal perfusion, leading to increased urine output. This response indicates that the medication is effective in treating shock by enhancing renal function and perfusion. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because an increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased respiratory rate are not findings that indicate the effectiveness of IV Dopamine in treating shock.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The prescription provided includes the medication name, dosage, and route of administration. However, it lacks information about the frequency or timing of the medication administration. In this case, it is crucial to clarify the frequency with the provider to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication for the client with Hyperemesis Gravidarum.

3. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Capecitabine is known to cause neutropenia as a common adverse effect due to bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections and requires close monitoring to prevent complications. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use, making them incorrect choices.

4. A client has been prescribed Aspirin for prevention of cardiovascular disease. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A decrease in episodes of angina indicates that Aspirin is effectively preventing the formation of clots that could lead to cardiovascular events. Angina is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, usually due to coronary artery disease. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, thereby reducing the risk of clot formation in the arteries. Improvement in angina symptoms suggests that the medication is successfully preventing clot-related complications in the cardiovascular system. Monitoring and recognizing a decrease in angina episodes can be a valuable indicator of the medication's efficacy in preventing cardiovascular events. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a decrease in troponin levels, a regular heart rhythm, or stable blood pressure, while important parameters, do not directly reflect the effectiveness of Aspirin in preventing cardiovascular events through antiplatelet action.

5. A client has a new prescription for Levofloxacin. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge instructions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.' Levofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products because calcium can interfere with the absorption of the medication. It is recommended to take Levofloxacin 1 hour before or 2 hours after consuming dairy products to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as Levofloxacin is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is not necessary information for taking Levofloxacin. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of Levofloxacin.

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