Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving IV Dopamine for the treatment of shock. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is increased urine output. Dopamine increases cardiac output and improves renal perfusion, leading to increased urine output. This response indicates that the medication is effective in treating shock by enhancing renal function and perfusion. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because an increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased respiratory rate are not findings that indicate the effectiveness of IV Dopamine in treating shock.

2. What is the therapeutic classification of Furosemide?

• A. Antidiuretics
• B. Diuretics
• C. Anticonvulsants
• D. Antidotes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is classified therapeutically as a diuretic. Diuretics are medications used to promote diuresis, which helps the body get rid of excess salt and water. Furosemide is commonly prescribed to treat conditions such as fluid retention and swelling (edema) associated with congestive heart failure, liver disease, or kidney disorders. Choice A, Antidiuretics, is incorrect as Furosemide acts as a diuretic, promoting the production of urine. Choice C, Anticonvulsants, is also incorrect as Furosemide is not used to treat seizures. Choice D, Antidotes, is incorrect as Furosemide is not an antidote but rather a medication used to treat conditions related to fluid retention.

3. A client has a prescription for Bethanechol to treat urinary retention. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Hypertension
• C. Excessive perspiration
• D. Fecal impaction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Excessive perspiration. Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist that stimulates muscarinic receptors. Activation of muscarinic receptors can lead to excessive perspiration (diaphoresis) due to increased cholinergic activity, affecting sweat glands. Dry mouth, hypertension, and fecal impaction are not typically associated with muscarinic stimulation. Dry mouth is more commonly associated with anticholinergic medications, hypertension can be a result of alpha-adrenergic stimulation, and fecal impaction is not a direct effect of muscarinic receptor activation.

4. What is a severe adverse effect of warfarin?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Arrhythmias
• C. Blurred vision
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A severe adverse effect of warfarin is bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting blood clotting factors, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Excessive bleeding can occur internally or externally, and it is crucial for individuals taking warfarin to be aware of this potential complication and seek medical attention if they experience any signs of bleeding. Arrhythmias, blurred vision, and bradycardia are not typically associated with warfarin use, making them incorrect choices.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.

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