a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving iv dopamine for treatment of shock which of the following findings indicates that the medication is e
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client is receiving IV Dopamine for the treatment of shock. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is increased urine output. Dopamine increases cardiac output and improves renal perfusion, leading to increased urine output. This response indicates that the medication is effective in treating shock by enhancing renal function and perfusion. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because an increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased respiratory rate are not findings that indicate the effectiveness of IV Dopamine in treating shock.

2. A client has a new prescription for Albuterol and Beclomethasone inhalers for the control of asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed an inhaled beta2-agonist (such as albuterol) and an inhaled glucocorticoid (such as beclomethasone) for asthma control, the beta2-agonist should be administered first. Administering the beta2-agonist before the glucocorticoid helps promote bronchodilation and enhances the absorption of the glucocorticoid, maximizing its effectiveness in the lungs. Choice A is incorrect because albuterol is usually taken as needed for quick relief of asthma symptoms and not necessarily at the same time each day. Choice C is incorrect as beclomethasone is a controller medication used for long-term asthma management, not for acute episodes. Choice D is incorrect as shaking the beclomethasone inhaler before use helps ensure proper medication dispersion for effective inhalation.

3. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who is starting therapy with paclitaxel. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neutropenia. Paclitaxel commonly causes neutropenia due to bone marrow suppression. It is essential for clients receiving this medication to monitor for signs of neutropenia, such as fever, chills, and increased susceptibility to infections, as it can increase the risk of serious complications.

4. When reviewing a client's health record, a nurse notes a new prescription for Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The nurse should identify this as which type of prescription?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A routine prescription indicates medications to be administered on a regular schedule without a termination date or a specific number of doses. In this case, Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily falls under a routine prescription, meaning the nurse will administer this medication daily until the provider discontinues it. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A 'single' prescription is for a one-time dose, 'stat' prescriptions are for immediate administration, and 'standing' prescriptions are pre-authorized for administration as needed within specified parameters.

5. A healthcare provider is educating a client who has a prescription for Theophylline. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid caffeine while taking this medication.' Caffeine can increase the risk of theophylline toxicity as it competes for the same metabolic pathways. Consuming caffeine while on theophylline can lead to adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because although maintaining adequate hydration is important, it is not a specific instruction related to theophylline use. Choice C is incorrect as the timing of the medication administration should be based on the healthcare provider's recommendation and the client's individual needs. Choice D is incorrect as increased appetite is not a common side effect associated with theophylline.

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