Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving IV Dopamine for the treatment of shock. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is increased urine output. Dopamine increases cardiac output and improves renal perfusion, leading to increased urine output. This response indicates that the medication is effective in treating shock by enhancing renal function and perfusion. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because an increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased respiratory rate are not findings that indicate the effectiveness of IV Dopamine in treating shock.

2. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Plan to take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Expect increased swelling of the ankles.
• D. Fluid intake should be limited in the morning.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication with food. Hydrochlorothiazide should be taken with or after meals to prevent gastrointestinal upset. Taking it with food can help reduce the chances of stomach discomfort or nausea. It is not necessary to take the medication at bedtime, expect increased swelling of the ankles, or limit fluid intake in the morning when taking Hydrochlorothiazide. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

3. A client has a new prescription for Timolol. How should the nurse instruct the client to insert eye drops?

• A. Press your finger on the inside corner of your eye for 1 minute after application.
• B. Apply the eye drops directly to the cornea.
• C. Drop the prescribed amount of medication into the center of the conjunctival sac.
• D. Wipe your eyes gently with a tissue immediately after application.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering eye drops, it is essential to instruct the client to drop the prescribed amount of medication into the center of the conjunctival sac. This technique helps ensure proper distribution of the medication and reduces the risk of potential adverse effects. Pressing on the inside corner of the eye is done to prevent systemic absorption, applying drops directly to the cornea can cause irritation, and wiping the eyes after application can lead to decreased effectiveness of the medication.

4. When caring for a client prescribed Digoxin, which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Magnesium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Digoxin, monitoring potassium levels is crucial as hypokalemia can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can potentiate the effects of Digoxin on the heart, leading to toxicity. Therefore, regular monitoring of potassium levels helps in preventing adverse effects and ensuring the safe use of Digoxin. Sodium, magnesium, and calcium levels are not directly associated with Digoxin toxicity; hence, they are not the primary focus for monitoring in this case.

5. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Insomnia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause xerostomia (dry mouth) due to its effect on reducing salivary flow. Monitoring for dry mouth is important as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort for the client. Diarrhea, insomnia, and hypertension are not typically associated with clonidine use, making them less likely adverse effects to monitor for in this scenario.

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