a nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is receiving transdermal fentanyl for severe pain which of the following m
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ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is receiving transdermal Fentanyl for severe pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect to cause an adverse effect when administered concurrently with Fentanyl?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diazepam, a CNS depressant, can interact with Fentanyl causing severe sedation when administered concurrently. This is due to the additive central nervous system depressant effects of both medications, which can lead to excessive sedation, respiratory depression, and other serious adverse effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals need to monitor clients closely for signs of excessive sedation or respiratory depression when administering these medications together.

2. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods." Prednisone is associated with potassium depletion, making it important for clients to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent potential imbalances. Foods such as bananas, oranges, and spinach are good sources of potassium. Choice B, "Avoid consuming grapefruit juice," is not directly related to Prednisone use. Choice C, "Take this medication with food," is a general instruction for many medications but not specific to Prednisone. Choice D, "Decrease your intake of sodium-rich foods," is not directly related to Prednisone's side effects.

3. What is a desired outcome of the drug Phenytoin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decrease or cessation of seizures without excessive sedation. Phenytoin is primarily used as an antiepileptic medication to manage and prevent seizures. It does not directly impact symptoms of PTSD (Choice A), resolution of signs of infection (Choice B), or prevention or relief of bronchospasm (Choice D). Therefore, the desired outcome of Phenytoin is to control seizures effectively while avoiding excessive sedation.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a transfusion of a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for a client who has severe anemia. Which of the following interventions will prevent an acute hemolytic reaction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain help from another healthcare provider to confirm the correct client and blood product. This action is crucial in preventing an acute hemolytic reaction, which is caused by ABO or Rh incompatibility. Verifying the correct client and blood product before the transfusion ensures that there are no errors in identification, reducing the risk of a potentially life-threatening reaction. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of transfusion safety but are not directly related to preventing acute hemolytic reactions. Ensuring a patent IV line, monitoring vital signs, and staying with the client are all essential during transfusion but do not specifically address the risk of ABO or Rh incompatibility reactions.

5. A client has a new prescription for Ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take Ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach. This medication is best absorbed when taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals. Instructing the client to take it with milk, before bedtime, or with antacids can decrease its absorption and effectiveness. Taking it with milk can reduce the absorption of iron due to the calcium in milk. Taking it before bedtime is not necessary and may cause gastrointestinal upset. Taking it with antacids can interfere with the absorption of iron.

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