a nurse is assessing a male client who recently began taking haloperidol which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the pro
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. During an assessment, a male client who has recently started taking Haloperidol is displaying certain symptoms. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize in reporting to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are indicative of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that requires urgent intervention. Immediate reporting to the provider is crucial to address this potentially harmful condition and ensure the client's safety. Shuffling gait, drowsiness, and impotence are important to monitor but do not pose the same level of immediate risk as acute dystonia. Acute dystonia can lead to serious complications if not promptly treated, making it the priority in this scenario.

2. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV nitroprusside is administered at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, resulting in mental status changes such as delirium. Monitoring thiocyanate levels during therapy is crucial to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL to prevent this adverse reaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because nitroprusside does not typically cause intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia as adverse reactions.

3. A client has a new prescription for Metronidazole. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Metronidazole is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol, resulting in severe nausea, vomiting, and other adverse effects. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to refrain from consuming alcohol during treatment to prevent these potential complications. Choice B is incorrect because Metronidazole can be taken with or without food. Choice C is irrelevant as there is no specific requirement to increase green, leafy vegetable intake with Metronidazole. Choice D is incorrect as a metallic taste is a known side effect of Metronidazole but does not necessarily indicate the need to discontinue the medication.

4. Why should the nitrate patch be off for 8 hours per day?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Removing the nitrate patch for 8 hours each day is essential to prevent the body from developing tolerance to the medication. By allowing the body to have a drug-free period, the effectiveness of the medication is maintained over time. This practice helps in ensuring that the nitrate patch continues to provide its intended therapeutic effects without diminishing its efficacy. Therefore, it is important for the client to adhere to the prescribed schedule of removing the patch for 8 hours daily to optimize the treatment outcomes.

5. When starting therapy with Lisinopril, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cough. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. Clients should be informed to monitor for this side effect and report it to their healthcare provider if it occurs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, diarrhea, and weight gain are not commonly associated with Lisinopril therapy.

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