a nurse is assessing a male client who recently began taking haloperidol which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the pro
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. During an assessment, a male client who has recently started taking Haloperidol is displaying certain symptoms. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize in reporting to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are indicative of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that requires urgent intervention. Immediate reporting to the provider is crucial to address this potentially harmful condition and ensure the client's safety. Shuffling gait, drowsiness, and impotence are important to monitor but do not pose the same level of immediate risk as acute dystonia. Acute dystonia can lead to serious complications if not promptly treated, making it the priority in this scenario.

2. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. It is crucial for clients on Digoxin to monitor their heart rate. A heart rate less than 60/min can indicate bradycardia, a potential side effect of Digoxin. Therefore, the client should be instructed to contact the provider if their heart rate is less than 60/min to prevent complications and receive appropriate management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Checking the pulse rate for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is not specific to Digoxin administration. Increasing sodium intake is contraindicated as Digoxin can lead to sodium retention. Taking Digoxin with food if nausea occurs is not recommended as it may affect the drug's absorption.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, (80 mg / 10 mg/mL) = 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B (10 mL), C (6 mL), and D (12 mL) are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume needed based on the provided concentration of the solution.

4. A client is taking Epoetin Alfa for anemia. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the hematocrit level to evaluate the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa therapy. Epoetin Alfa stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hematocrit levels. Monitoring the hematocrit helps assess the response to therapy and ensures that the medication is effectively addressing the anemia. White blood cell count and platelet count are not directly affected by Epoetin Alfa therapy. Serum potassium level monitoring is important for other medications that may impact potassium levels but is not specifically relevant to assessing the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa in treating anemia.

5. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Metronidazole. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Metronidazole is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. Consuming alcohol with Metronidazole can lead to a disulfiram-like reaction, causing symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and flushing. It is crucial to advise clients to abstain from alcohol during the course of treatment to prevent adverse reactions and ensure the effectiveness of the medication.

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