a nurse is assessing a male client who recently began taking haloperidol which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the pro
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. During an assessment, a male client who has recently started taking Haloperidol is displaying certain symptoms. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize in reporting to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are indicative of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that requires urgent intervention. Immediate reporting to the provider is crucial to address this potentially harmful condition and ensure the client's safety. Shuffling gait, drowsiness, and impotence are important to monitor but do not pose the same level of immediate risk as acute dystonia. Acute dystonia can lead to serious complications if not promptly treated, making it the priority in this scenario.

2. When administering Lithium to a patient, what is a life-threatening side effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is being treated with Lithium, a life-threatening side effect to watch out for is seizures. Lithium can lower the seizure threshold, increasing the risk of seizures. Seizures are serious and necessitate prompt medical intervention to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Erythema, which is redness of the skin, is not a common life-threatening side effect of Lithium. Pancreatitis can be a side effect of Lithium, but it is not typically life-threatening. Headache is a common side effect of Lithium, but it is not considered life-threatening.

3. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Serum glucose. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can lead to hyperglycemia. Monitoring serum glucose levels is essential to assess for elevated blood sugar levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as Prednisone does not directly affect potassium, calcium, or sodium levels.

4. A healthcare professional is planning to administer subcutaneous enoxaparin 40 mg using a prefilled syringe of Enoxaparin 40 mg/0.4 mL to an adult client following hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B. When administering enoxaparin, it is essential to insert the needle completely into the client's tissue to ensure a deep subcutaneous injection. This method helps in the appropriate delivery of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because expelling air bubbles is not necessary with subcutaneous injections and may lead to medication loss. Choice C is incorrect as enoxaparin is usually administered in the abdomen, not the thigh. Choice D is incorrect as aspiration is not recommended for subcutaneous injections to avoid trauma or bleeding.

5. A client has a new prescription for a combination of oral NRTIs (abacavir, lamivudine, and zidovudine) for the treatment of HIV. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The NRTI antiretroviral medications this client is prescribed work by inhibiting the enzyme reverse transcriptase, thus preventing HIV replication. By inhibiting this crucial enzyme, the drug interferes with the virus's ability to replicate and spread in the body. Choice A is incorrect because NRTIs do not block HIV entry into cells. Choice B is incorrect as NRTIs do not weaken the cell wall of the virus. Choice D is incorrect as NRTIs do not prevent protein synthesis within the HIV cell.

Similar Questions

A client is receiving Cefotaxime IV for a severe infection. Which finding indicates a potentially serious adverse reaction to this medication that the nurse should report to the provider?
A client is undergoing preparation for extensive colorectal surgery. Which of the following oral antibiotics should be administered to suppress normal flora in the GI tract?
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver?
A client has a new prescription for combination oral NRTIs for the treatment of HIV. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in discharge teaching?
During an admission assessment for a client with severe Aspirin toxicity, which finding should the nurse expect?

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses