ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. During an assessment, a male client who has recently started taking Haloperidol is displaying certain symptoms. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize in reporting to the provider?
- A. Shuffling gait
- B. Neck spasms
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Impotence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Neck spasms are indicative of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that requires urgent intervention. Immediate reporting to the provider is crucial to address this potentially harmful condition and ensure the client's safety. Shuffling gait, drowsiness, and impotence are important to monitor but do not pose the same level of immediate risk as acute dystonia. Acute dystonia can lead to serious complications if not promptly treated, making it the priority in this scenario.
2. A client has a new prescription for Beclomethasone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Rinse your mouth after each use of this medication.
- B. Limit fluid intake while taking this medication.
- C. Increase your intake of vitamin B12 while taking this medication.
- D. You can take the medication as needed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Beclomethasone is to rinse the mouth after each use to reduce the risk of oral fungal infection. Beclomethasone is a corticosteroid inhaler that can increase the risk of oral thrush, so rinsing the mouth helps minimize this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because there is no need to limit fluid intake while taking Beclomethasone. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific need to increase vitamin B12 intake with this medication. Choice D is incorrect because Beclomethasone should be taken as prescribed, not as needed.
3. Which of the following drugs is associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Quinidine
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Ethosuximide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin reaction that can be associated with Ethosuximide.
4. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Edema
- B. Constipation
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Urinary retention
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Imatinib is known to cause edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of fluid retention, such as swelling of the extremities or weight gain. Edema can indicate potential complications and requires prompt intervention to prevent further issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with imatinib use. Constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not commonly reported adverse effects of imatinib therapy.
5. A client has a new prescription for Metoclopramide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Expect a rapid heart rate.
- B. Take the medication with meals.
- C. Report any signs of restlessness or involuntary movements.
- D. Avoid consuming dairy products.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction to include when teaching a client about Metoclopramide is to report any signs of restlessness or involuntary movements. Metoclopramide can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness or involuntary movements. It is essential for clients to notify their healthcare provider if they experience these symptoms to receive appropriate management.
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