Nursing Elites

1. A client in the post-anesthesia recovery unit received a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent and has muscle weakness. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Neostigmine
• B. Naloxone
• C. Dantrolene
• D. Vecuronium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor commonly used to reverse the effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers, such as the one the client received. It works by inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine, thereby enhancing neuromuscular transmission and reversing muscle weakness caused by the neuromuscular blocking agent.

2. The client asks the nurse about common side effects of calcium channel blockers. What should the nurse include in client teaching?

• A. Headache
• B. Constipation
• C. Epistaxis
• D. Dysuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: One of the common side effects of calcium channel blockers is a headache. This is important information for the nurse to include in client teaching as it helps the client understand potential adverse effects of the medication. Constipation, epistaxis, and dysuria are not typically associated with calcium channel blockers.

3. A client has anemia and a new prescription for ferrous sulfate liquid. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach to decrease gastrointestinal irritation.
• B. Take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption.
• C. Take the medication with milk.
• D. Rinse the mouth before taking the iron.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Taking ferrous sulfate with orange juice can help increase the absorption of iron. Orange juice contains vitamin C, which aids in the absorption of iron from the medication. This combination can enhance the effectiveness of the iron supplement for a client with anemia. Option A is incorrect because taking iron on an empty stomach can cause gastrointestinal upset. Option C is incorrect because calcium in milk can inhibit iron absorption. Option D is irrelevant to enhancing iron absorption.

4. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is monitoring serum electrolytes for four older adult clients who take digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte values increases a client's risk for Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Calcium 9.2 mg/dL
• B. Calcium 10.3 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L
• D. Potassium 4.8 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.4 mEq/L. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L is below the expected reference range and puts a client at risk for digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can lead to fatal dysrhythmias, especially in older clients taking Digoxin, as potassium plays a crucial role in the heart's electrical activity. Choices A and B are related to calcium levels, which do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Choice D, Potassium 4.8 mEq/L, is within the expected reference range and would not increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity.

5. A client has a prescription for Phenytoin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
• C. Brush and floss your teeth regularly.
• D. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Brush and floss your teeth regularly.' Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, a condition that leads to overgrowth of gum tissue. Good oral hygiene practices such as regular brushing and flossing can help prevent or minimize this side effect. In contrast, choices A, B, and D are not directly related to managing the side effects of Phenytoin. Taking the medication at bedtime (choice A) is not a specific instruction related to oral hygiene. Increasing calcium-rich foods intake (choice B) may be beneficial for bone health but is not directly related to preventing gingival hyperplasia. Avoiding foods high in potassium (choice D) is not a necessary instruction for a client taking Phenytoin.

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