a nurse is caring for a client who receives a local anesthetic of lidocaine during the repair of a skin laceration for which of the following adverse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A client receives a local anesthetic of Lidocaine during the repair of a skin laceration. For which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse monitor the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Seizures are a potential adverse reaction to local anesthetics like Lidocaine. Lidocaine can affect the central nervous system and, in some cases, lead to seizure activity. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to monitor the client for any signs of seizures during and after the administration of Lidocaine.

2. A client is starting a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption.' Taking ferrous sulfate with orange juice helps enhance the absorption of iron due to the ascorbic acid present in the orange juice, which aids in iron absorption. This combination can help improve the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A, taking the medication with meals, may reduce gastrointestinal side effects but does not specifically enhance absorption. Choice B, taking the medication on an empty stomach, may lead to better absorption but can also increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D, taking the medication with a full glass of milk, is incorrect because calcium in milk can inhibit the absorption of iron.

3. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down bowel movements and lead to constipation as a side effect. Therefore, the client reporting frequent constipation should alert the nurse to a potential adverse effect of Verapamil. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with Verapamil use. Increased urination is not a common side effect of Verapamil, peeling skin is more likely related to a dermatological issue, and ringing in the ears is not a known adverse effect of Verapamil.

4. A client is taking Paroxetine to treat PTSD and reports teeth grinding at night. Which interventions should the nurse implement to manage Bruxism? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct interventions to manage Bruxism associated with Paroxetine use include A: Concurrent administration of buspirone. Buspirone can help alleviate the side effect of Bruxism. Additionally, C: Use of a mouth guard is recommended to prevent oral damage from teeth grinding. B: Administration of a different SSRI is not necessary since the issue is specific to Paroxetine. D: Changing to a different class of antidepressant medication may be considered in severe cases, but the initial step should be to add buspirone to address the Bruxism caused by Paroxetine.

5. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients who develop tachycardia, such as in the case of reflex tachycardia induced by Isosorbide Mononitrate, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario. Furosemide (Choice A) is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema, not for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor primarily used for hypertension and heart failure, not for reflex tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used for chronic angina but does not specifically address reflex tachycardia.

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