Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a client who has a new prescription for Ciprofloxacin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with an antacid.
• B. Avoid direct sunlight.
• C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• D. Expect urine to turn orange.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Ciprofloxacin is to avoid direct sunlight. Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, increasing the risk of sunburn. Clients should be advised to avoid direct sunlight and wear protective clothing, including hats and sunglasses when going outdoors to prevent skin damage. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Ciprofloxacin with an antacid can reduce its absorption, so they should not be taken together. Increasing dairy product intake is not necessary or relevant to taking Ciprofloxacin. While Ciprofloxacin can discolor urine, turning it orange, this is not a critical side effect that requires specific instructions for the client.

2. A client with schizophrenia is being taught strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the client to minimize anticholinergic effects?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
• B. Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.
• C. Use cooling measures to decrease fever.
• D. Take an antacid to relieve nausea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chewing sugarless gum is an effective strategy to manage dry mouth, a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. By stimulating saliva production, sugarless gum helps to moisten the mouth and alleviate the discomfort associated with dryness. This intervention can improve the client's oral health and overall comfort while taking the medication. The other options are not directly related to alleviating anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia does not address anticholinergic effects specifically. Using cooling measures to decrease fever is not relevant to managing dry mouth caused by anticholinergic effects. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea is unrelated to managing dry mouth, which is the focus of anticholinergic effects.

3. A client with Diabetes is experiencing Nausea due to Gastroparesis. The healthcare provider should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Lubiprostone
• B. Metoclopramide
• C. Bisacodyl
• D. Loperamide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metoclopramide, a dopamine antagonist, is indicated for treating nausea and increasing gastric motility. In the context of diabetic gastroparesis, it can alleviate bloating and nausea by enhancing gastric emptying. Lubiprostone (Choice A) is a chloride channel activator used for chronic idiopathic constipation and irritable bowel syndrome with constipation. Bisacodyl (Choice C) is a stimulant laxative primarily used for constipation. Loperamide (Choice D) is an anti-diarrheal agent and would not be appropriate for treating nausea and gastroparesis.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a transfusion of a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for a client who has severe anemia. Which of the following interventions will prevent an acute hemolytic reaction?

• A. Ensure that the client has a patent IV line before obtaining the blood product from the refrigerator.
• B. Obtain help from another healthcare provider to confirm the correct client and blood product.
• C. Take a complete set of vital signs before beginning the transfusion and periodically during the transfusion.
• D. Stay with the client for the first 15 to 30 minutes of the transfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain help from another healthcare provider to confirm the correct client and blood product. This action is crucial in preventing an acute hemolytic reaction, which is caused by ABO or Rh incompatibility. Verifying the correct client and blood product before the transfusion ensures that there are no errors in identification, reducing the risk of a potentially life-threatening reaction. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of transfusion safety but are not directly related to preventing acute hemolytic reactions. Ensuring a patent IV line, monitoring vital signs, and staying with the client are all essential during transfusion but do not specifically address the risk of ABO or Rh incompatibility reactions.

5. A client is being educated about the use of Fluticasone to treat Perennial Rhinitis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should use the spray every 4 hours while I am awake.
• B. It can take as long as 3 weeks before the medication takes maximum effect.
• C. This medication can also be used to treat motion sickness.
• D. I can use this medication when my nasal passages are blocked.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because Fluticasone may show some benefits within a few hours, but its full therapeutic effect may take up to 3 weeks to be achieved in treating Perennial Rhinitis. Option A is incorrect as the frequency of Fluticasone use is usually once daily. Option C is incorrect as Fluticasone is not used for motion sickness. Option D is incorrect as Fluticasone is a preventive medication and not used for immediate relief when nasal passages are blocked.

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