Nursing Elites

1. When starting therapy with Atenolol, which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its mechanism of action. The nurse should advise the client to monitor their pulse regularly, as a significant decrease may indicate bradycardia, a condition characterized by a slow heart rate.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Spironolactone to a client. Which of the following laboratory results should the professional review before administering this medication?

• A. Serum potassium.
• B. Serum sodium.
• C. Serum chloride.
• D. Serum calcium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering Spironolactone, it is essential to monitor the client's serum potassium levels because Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Monitoring potassium levels helps to detect hyperkalemia, a potential adverse effect of the medication.

3. A healthcare provider plans to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the provider take?

• A. Monitor for seizures and confusion with repeated doses.
• B. Protect the client's skin from severe diarrhea associated with morphine.
• C. Withhold this medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min.
• D. Administer Morphine intermittently via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the provider is to withhold morphine if the client's respiratory rate is 12/min or less. Respiratory depression is a serious side effect of morphine and other opioids. Withholding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is essential to prevent further respiratory compromise in the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because monitoring for seizures and confusion, protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea, and administering morphine via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less are not the primary actions to ensure client safety when administering morphine IV. Respiratory status is crucial due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with opioid administration.

4. A client has a new prescription for Allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Increase your fluid intake.
• C. Avoid foods high in calcium.
• D. Take this medication with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allopurinol can increase the risk of kidney stones as a side effect. To prevent this adverse effect, it is essential for the client to increase their fluid intake. Adequate hydration can help in preventing the formation of kidney stones by keeping urine dilute and flushing out substances that can lead to stone formation.

5. When teaching a client with a prescription for long-term use of oral prednisone for chronic asthma, the nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Nervousness
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is weight gain. Weight gain and fluid retention are common adverse effects of oral prednisone due to sodium and water retention. Patients on long-term prednisone therapy should be advised to monitor their weight closely and report any significant changes to their healthcare provider. Choice B, 'Nervousness,' is not typically associated with oral prednisone use. Choice C, 'Bradycardia,' refers to a slow heart rate, which is not a common adverse effect of prednisone. Choice D, 'Constipation,' is not a typical adverse effect of oral prednisone; instead, gastrointestinal disturbances like increased appetite or even peptic ulcer disease may occur.

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