Nursing Elites

1. When starting therapy with Atenolol, which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its mechanism of action. The nurse should advise the client to monitor their pulse regularly, as a significant decrease may indicate bradycardia, a condition characterized by a slow heart rate.

2. A client has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide. The client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Ototoxicity
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyponatremia is a potential adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide due to its diuretic action. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can cause sodium and water loss, potentially leading to hyponatremia. Monitoring for symptoms such as weakness, confusion, and muscle cramps can help detect hyponatremia early. Ototoxicity (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide. Hypoglycemia (choice C) is not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is more commonly associated with potassium-sparing diuretics rather than thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide.

3. A client is taking atorvastatin for hyperlipidemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

• A. Headache
• B. Nausea
• C. Muscle pain
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle pain should be reported immediately as it can indicate rhabdomyolysis, a severe adverse effect of atorvastatin. Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by muscle pain, weakness, and can lead to serious complications such as kidney damage, making it crucial for the nurse to notify the provider promptly. Headache, nausea, and diarrhea are common side effects of atorvastatin and do not require immediate reporting unless severe or persistent.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Urinary retention
• B. Tachypnea
• C. Hypertension
• D. Irritating cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the sensation of a full bladder, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for this complication is crucial to prevent bladder distention and related issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and irritating cough are not typically associated with opioid agonist administration for pain management.

5. Which of the following is not a common effect of Midazolam?

• A. Amnesia
• B. Decreased respiratory function
• C. Anesthetic
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Midazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for its sedative, anxiolytic, and amnestic effects. While dizziness can be a side effect of Midazolam, it is not a primary or common effect. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it deviates from the typical effects associated with Midazolam.

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