Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider plans to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the provider take?

• A. Monitor for seizures and confusion with repeated doses.
• B. Protect the client's skin from severe diarrhea associated with morphine.
• C. Withhold this medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min.
• D. Administer Morphine intermittently via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the provider is to withhold morphine if the client's respiratory rate is 12/min or less. Respiratory depression is a serious side effect of morphine and other opioids. Withholding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is essential to prevent further respiratory compromise in the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because monitoring for seizures and confusion, protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea, and administering morphine via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less are not the primary actions to ensure client safety when administering morphine IV. Respiratory status is crucial due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with opioid administration.

2. What is a common side effect of Albuterol?

• A. Paradoxical Bronchospasm
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Seizures
• D. Vision Loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A common side effect of Albuterol is paradoxical bronchospasm, a condition where the airways become more constricted instead of relaxing. This can be a serious adverse reaction to the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not commonly associated with Albuterol use. Diarrhea and seizures are not typically reported side effects of Albuterol, and vision loss is not a recognized side effect of this medication.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of digoxin?

• A. Constipation
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Blurred vision is a common adverse effect of digoxin and can indicate toxicity. Monitoring for visual changes is essential to prevent serious complications in clients taking digoxin.

4. A child is prescribed Amoxicillin 20 mg/kg/day PO to be administered every 12 hr. The child weighs 44 lb. The available medication is amoxicillin suspension 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL should be given per dose?

• A. 4 mL
• B. 5 mL
• C. 6 mL
• D. 3 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dosage per administration: Convert the weight to kg (44 lb / 2.2 lb/kg = 20 kg). Then, (20 mg/kg/day x 20 kg) / 2 (for every 12 hr dosing) = 200 mg per dose. (200 mg / 250 mg) x 5 mL = 4 mL per dose. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL of amoxicillin suspension per dose. Choice B, 5 mL, is incorrect because the calculation shows that 4 mL is the correct dose. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they are not in line with the calculated dosage based on the weight of the child and the concentration of the medication.

5. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which of the following preexisting conditions can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?

• A. Peptic ulcer disease
• B. Breast cancer
• C. Diabetes mellitus
• D. Schizophrenia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ketamine is known to produce psychological effects, such as hallucinations. Therefore, individuals with schizophrenia are at increased risk of experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms if given Ketamine, making it a contraindication for its use as an intravenous anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for Ketamine use as an intravenous anesthetic.

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