a nurse is planning to administer morphine iv to a client who is postoperative which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A healthcare provider plans to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the provider take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the provider is to withhold morphine if the client's respiratory rate is 12/min or less. Respiratory depression is a serious side effect of morphine and other opioids. Withholding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is essential to prevent further respiratory compromise in the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because monitoring for seizures and confusion, protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea, and administering morphine via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less are not the primary actions to ensure client safety when administering morphine IV. Respiratory status is crucial due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with opioid administration.

2. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, an adverse effect of the medication. It suggests potential fluid overload or exacerbation of heart conditions, both of which require immediate attention. Reporting dyspnea promptly allows for timely evaluation and management. Blood glucose levels and urine output are important parameters to monitor but are not directly related to the administration of Mannitol for increased intracranial pressure. Bilateral equal pupil size is a normal and expected finding.

3. Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Spironolactone is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by antagonizing the aldosterone receptor, leading to potassium retention and sodium excretion. This mechanism makes it a suitable choice for conditions where potassium retention is desired, such as in patients with heart failure or liver cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, and bumetanide are loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics, respectively, which promote the excretion of potassium.

4. A client has a new prescription for Maraviroc to treat HIV infection. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Severe allergic reactions. Maraviroc, used to treat HIV infection, can lead to severe allergic reactions, including hepatotoxicity. While liver failure is a potential adverse effect, it is often preceded by hepatotoxicity manifestations like jaundice or right upper quadrant pain. Kidney failure and pancreatitis are not typically associated with Maraviroc use. Therefore, monitoring for signs of severe allergic reactions and hepatotoxicity is crucial for early detection and intervention.

5. While caring for a client receiving IV heparin, which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelet count, is a known adverse effect associated with heparin therapy. It can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and should be closely monitored during treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension is not typically associated with heparin use; hyperglycemia is not a common adverse effect of heparin; leukopenia is not a primary side effect of heparin therapy.

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