a nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed diltiazem which of the following findings should the nurse monitor
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ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic and dromotropic effects on the heart. The nurse should monitor the client's heart rate regularly to detect any signs of bradycardia and take appropriate actions if necessary. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not an expected finding with Diltiazem use. Hypertension (Choice C) is actually a condition that Diltiazem is used to treat. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of Diltiazem.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement to include in discharge teaching for a client prescribed Warfarin is to use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding, so using a soft toothbrush can help prevent gum injury and bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin, another blood-thinning medication, should generally be avoided while on Warfarin to reduce the risk of bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because clients on Warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods rather than avoid them completely. Choice D is unrelated to the medication and not a priority teaching point for a client prescribed Warfarin.

3. When teaching a client with a prescription for Vancomycin, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Vancomycin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can result in hearing loss. Therefore, it is important for clients to monitor for any changes in their hearing while taking this medication and promptly report any issues to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because red man syndrome is associated with rapid infusion of Vancomycin, not a common side effect during treatment; taking the medication with a full glass of water is a general instruction for many medications but not specific to Vancomycin; and increasing potassium-rich foods is not directly related to Vancomycin therapy.

4. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV nitroprusside is administered at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, resulting in mental status changes such as delirium. Monitoring thiocyanate levels during therapy is crucial to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL to prevent this adverse reaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because nitroprusside does not typically cause intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia as adverse reactions.

5. A healthcare provider is planning to administer Ciprofloxacin IV to a client who has cystitis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin should be infused over 60 minutes to minimize vein irritation and reduce the risk of adverse effects. Administering a concentrated solution can lead to vein irritation and potential complications. Infusing the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing can cause incompatibility issues. Choosing a small peripheral vein may not be suitable for administering Ciprofloxacin, which should be infused through a larger vein to prevent vein irritation and ensure a proper dilution of the medication.

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