Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is prescribed Metformin. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. Blood glucose
• B. Creatine kinase
• C. Hemoglobin A1c
• D. Serum creatinine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metformin can lead to lactic acidosis, especially in individuals with impaired renal function. Monitoring the client's serum creatinine levels is crucial to assess kidney function because Metformin is eliminated by the kidneys, and impaired renal function can increase the risk of adverse effects. Monitoring blood glucose levels is essential for assessing the effectiveness of Metformin in managing diabetes but is not directly related to potential adverse effects of Metformin. Creatine kinase is not typically monitored in relation to Metformin therapy. Hemoglobin A1c is used to assess long-term glucose control in diabetes but is not specific for monitoring Metformin adverse effects.

2. A client is taking naproxen following an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following statements by the client requires further discussion?

• A. I signed up for a swimming class.
• B. I've been taking an antacid to help with indigestion.
• C. I've lost 2 pounds since my appointment 2 weeks ago.
• D. The naproxen is easier to take when I crush it and put it in applesauce.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client stating that they have been taking an antacid to help with indigestion while on naproxen requires further discussion. This statement suggests potential gastrointestinal distress or interactions between the medications. Antacids can affect the absorption of naproxen or lead to other complications. Therefore, the nurse should address this statement with the client to ensure safe and effective medication management. Choices A, C, and D do not raise immediate concerns related to the client's medication regimen and can be considered positive health behaviors or side effects of treatment that do not require immediate intervention.

3. A client with HIV is beginning therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Ringing in the ears
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to suppress bone marrow function, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequently causing fatigue due to anemia. Monitoring for fatigue is essential to ensure early detection and management of this adverse effect.

4. A hospitalized client has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should be prepared for transfusion?

• A. Whole blood
• B. Platelets
• C. Fresh frozen plasma
• D. Packed red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the appropriate blood product for a client with an elevated aPTT as it contains various coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathies and prevent bleeding. Elevated aPTT indicates a deficiency in specific clotting factors, and fresh frozen plasma is rich in these factors. Whole blood, platelets, and packed red blood cells do not contain the necessary coagulation factors to correct an elevated aPTT, so they are not indicated in this situation.

5. A client with thrombophlebitis receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?

• A. It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level.
• B. A pharmacist is the person to answer that question.
• C. Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.
• D. The oral medication you will take after this IV will dissolve the clot.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C. Heparin does not dissolve clots; it prevents new clots from forming. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots, rather than directly dissolving them. The client should be informed that the purpose of heparin therapy is to prevent the clot from getting larger and to reduce the risk of new clots forming. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A talks about reaching a therapeutic blood level of heparin, which is not related to clot dissolution. Choice B deflects the question to a pharmacist without providing relevant information. Choice D inaccurately suggests that an oral medication will dissolve the clot, which is not the mechanism of action for heparin.

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