ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is prescribed Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
- C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
- D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, causing potassium retention, potentially leading to elevated potassium levels. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), indicating hyperkalemia, a serious condition. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels promptly to the healthcare provider are crucial to prevent potential complications. Sodium, chloride, and calcium levels are not directly influenced by Spironolactone, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.
2. When assessing a client taking Gemfibrozil, which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse reaction to the medication?
- A. Mental status changes
- B. Tremor
- C. Jaundice
- D. Pneumonia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Jaundice is an adverse reaction that can occur in clients taking Gemfibrozil due to the potential development of liver impairment. Other symptoms of liver impairment may include anorexia and upper abdominal discomfort. Monitoring for signs of jaundice is crucial to detect and manage adverse effects of the medication promptly. Mental status changes (choice A) are not commonly associated with Gemfibrozil use. Tremor (choice B) is not a typical adverse reaction of Gemfibrozil. Pneumonia (choice D) is not directly linked to Gemfibrozil use but can be a complication in some cases.
3. A client with chronic renal disease is receiving therapy with epoetin alfa. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse review for an indication of a therapeutic effect of the medication?
- A. The leukocyte count
- B. The platelet count
- C. The hematocrit (Hct)
- D. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The hematocrit (Hct). Monitoring the hematocrit is essential to assess the therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa because this medication stimulates red blood cell production in clients with chronic renal disease. The leukocyte count (choice A) and platelet count (choice B) are not directly affected by epoetin alfa therapy. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who takes Desmopressin for Diabetes Insipidus. For which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Hypovolemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Agitation
- D. Headache
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Headache. Headache during desmopressin therapy can indicate water intoxication, which is a potential adverse effect. Desmopressin is a medication used to treat Diabetes Insipidus by reducing excessive urination and thirst. Monitoring for headaches is crucial as it can signal decreased sodium levels due to water retention, leading to water intoxication, which is a serious concern. Hypovolemia, hypercalcemia, and agitation are not typically associated with desmopressin therapy for Diabetes Insipidus.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who came to the clinic for a seasonal influenza immunization. The provider should identify that which of the following clients is a candidate to receive the vaccine via nasal spray rather than an injection?
- A. 1-year-old who has no health problems
- B. 17-year-old who has a hypersensitivity to Penicillin
- C. 25-year-old who is pregnant
- D. 52-year-old who takes a multivitamin supplement
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 17-year-old can receive the influenza vaccine via nasal spray even if they have a hypersensitivity to penicillin, as this is not a contraindication for the influenza immunization. The nasal spray vaccine (LAIV) is a live attenuated vaccine that is suitable for healthy individuals aged 2-49 years. Pregnancy (choice C) is a contraindication for the nasal spray influenza vaccine. Children under 2 years of age (choice A) are also not candidates for the nasal spray. Taking a multivitamin supplement (choice D) is not a determining factor for the type of influenza vaccine a person should receive.
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