ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is prescribed Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
- C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
- D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, causing potassium retention, potentially leading to elevated potassium levels. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), indicating hyperkalemia, a serious condition. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels promptly to the healthcare provider are crucial to prevent potential complications. Sodium, chloride, and calcium levels are not directly influenced by Spironolactone, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.
2. A client has a new prescription for Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Maintain a fluid restriction while taking it.
- C. Take it with food.
- D. Stop taking it when manifestations subside.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take it with food.' Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole can cause gastrointestinal upset, and taking it with food helps reduce the risk of stomach irritation. It should not be taken on an empty stomach. Maintaining good hydration is important to prevent kidney-related side effects, so maintaining a fluid restriction, as in choice B, is not appropriate. Additionally, stopping the medication when manifestations subside, as in choice D, is incorrect as antibiotics should be taken for the full prescribed course to ensure eradication of the infection and to prevent antibiotic resistance.
3. A client is to receive Tetracaine before a Bronchoscopy. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns.
- B. Monitor the insertion site for a hematoma.
- C. Palpate the bladder to detect urinary retention.
- D. Maintain the client on bed rest for 12 hours following the procedure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include in the plan of care is to keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns. Tetracaine can affect the gag reflex, so it is important to prevent aspiration by maintaining the client NPO until the pharyngeal response is normal, which typically takes about 1 hour. Monitoring for the return of the gag reflex is crucial to prevent complications from aspiration during the first oral intake after the procedure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the effects of Tetracaine or the bronchoscopy procedure.
4. A client has been prescribed Atorvastatin to lower cholesterol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Report any muscle pain to your provider immediately.
- C. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice while taking this medication.
- D. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to 'Report any muscle pain to your provider immediately.' Muscle pain can be a sign of rhabdomyolysis, a rare but serious side effect of statins like atorvastatin. It is crucial to monitor for potential complications, and reporting muscle pain promptly can lead to timely intervention if needed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address a critical side effect of atorvastatin or provide essential information for the client's safety and well-being.
5. A healthcare professional is caring for a hospitalized client who has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should the healthcare professional prepare to transfuse?
- A. Whole blood
- B. Platelets
- C. Fresh frozen plasma
- D. Packed red blood cells
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the correct choice for a client with an elevated aPTT because it contains essential coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathy and prevent bleeding. It is rich in clotting factors like fibrinogen, factors V and VIII, which are crucial in maintaining proper blood clotting function. Whole blood (Choice A) is not typically used to correct coagulopathy and is more suitable for situations requiring both volume and oxygen-carrying capacity. Platelets (Choice B) are indicated for thrombocytopenia, not for correcting coagulation factors. Packed red blood cells (Choice D) are used to increase oxygen-carrying capacity in cases of anemia, not for correcting coagulopathy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access