Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?

• A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
• C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
• D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, causing potassium retention, potentially leading to elevated potassium levels. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), indicating hyperkalemia, a serious condition. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels promptly to the healthcare provider are crucial to prevent potential complications. Sodium, chloride, and calcium levels are not directly influenced by Spironolactone, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

2. Which of the following is not directly related to drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin?

• A. Headaches
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Projectile vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Headaches, tachycardia, and dizziness are common side effects of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory properties. Projectile vomiting is not typically associated with nitroglycerin toxicity, making it the correct answer. Therefore, option D is the correct choice.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's medication history and notes a new prescription for Enalapril. The healthcare professional should monitor the client for which of the following as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia as an adverse effect due to decreased aldosterone levels, which leads to potassium retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent potential complications associated with hyperkalemia. The other options, bradycardia, hypoglycemia, and hypocalcemia, are not typically associated with Enalapril use and are less likely to occur as adverse effects.

4. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Captopril
• C. Ranolazine
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients experiencing tachycardia, including those with reflex tachycardia induced by medications like Isosorbide Mononitrate. Furosemide (Choice A) is a diuretic and is not indicated for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used in chronic angina but does not address tachycardia.

5. A nurse is caring for a client in an outpatient facility who has been taking Acarbose for type 2 Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to monitor?

• A. WBC
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Platelet count
• D. Liver function test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Liver function test. Acarbose can cause liver toxicity when taken long-term. Monitoring liver function tests periodically is essential to assess for any potential liver damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Acarbose does not directly impact white blood cell count, serum potassium levels, or platelet count.

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