Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Discontinue the medication if a rash develops.
• B. Expect increased salivation during the first few weeks of therapy.
• C. Avoid driving until the client's reaction to the medication is known.
• D. Stop the medication if you experience a dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting clonidine therapy for hypertension is to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known. Clonidine can cause drowsiness, so it is important for the client to refrain from activities that require alertness until they are aware of how the medication affects them. Choice A is incorrect because a rash is not a common side effect of clonidine. Choice B is incorrect as increased salivation is not an expected side effect of clonidine. Choice D is also incorrect as dry mouth is a common side effect of clonidine, but it is not a reason to stop the medication unless severe or bothersome. Therefore, the priority instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known to ensure safety.

2. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.

3. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
• B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
• C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
• D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function, potentially due to Furosemide therapy. This finding can suggest inadequate renal perfusion and impaired drug clearance, necessitating immediate reporting to prevent further complications like electrolyte imbalances and worsening heart failure. Choice A: Weight loss may be expected in heart failure patients due to fluid retention, but it is not an immediate concern. Choice B: A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is slightly low but not a priority compared to the indication of kidney dysfunction. Choice C: A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is within the normal range, so it does not require immediate reporting.

4. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating large amounts of green leafy vegetables.
• B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
• C. I will increase my intake of foods high in potassium.
• D. I will report any signs of bleeding to my provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Warfarin interacts with vitamin K, not potassium. Therefore, the client needs to be cautious with foods high in vitamin K, such as green leafy vegetables, rather than foods high in potassium. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements regarding Warfarin therapy and do not indicate a need for further teaching.

5. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Monitor your heart rate before taking the medication.
• B. Increase your intake of high-potassium foods.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of milk.
• D. Expect your stools to be black and tarry.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients prescribed Digoxin should monitor their heart rate before each dose. This is essential to identify any potential bradycardia, defined as a heart rate below 60 bpm, which can be a side effect of Digoxin. Any significant changes in heart rate should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of high-potassium foods can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition that can be exacerbated by Digoxin. Choice C is incorrect as taking Digoxin with a full glass of milk is not necessary. Choice D is incorrect as black, tarry stools are not an expected side effect of Digoxin.

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