Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Discontinue the medication if a rash develops.
• B. Expect increased salivation during the first few weeks of therapy.
• C. Avoid driving until the client's reaction to the medication is known.
• D. Stop the medication if you experience a dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting clonidine therapy for hypertension is to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known. Clonidine can cause drowsiness, so it is important for the client to refrain from activities that require alertness until they are aware of how the medication affects them. Choice A is incorrect because a rash is not a common side effect of clonidine. Choice B is incorrect as increased salivation is not an expected side effect of clonidine. Choice D is also incorrect as dry mouth is a common side effect of clonidine, but it is not a reason to stop the medication unless severe or bothersome. Therefore, the priority instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known to ensure safety.

2. A client has a prescription for digoxin. The client should be monitored for which of the following findings as an indication of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Visual disturbances
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Visual disturbances, such as yellow-tinged vision or seeing halos around lights, are common signs of digoxin toxicity. These symptoms should be reported immediately to healthcare providers for further evaluation and management. Tachycardia (Choice B) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite (Choice C) and constipation (Choice D) are not common manifestations of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is visual disturbances.

3. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Increased urination

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema due to vasodilation. Clients should monitor for this adverse effect characterized by swelling in the extremities. Muscle pain (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Verapamil. Dry cough (choice B) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors. Increased urination (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of Verapamil. Therefore, the correct answer is monitoring for peripheral edema.

4. A client has a new prescription for Fluoxetine for PTS. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You may have a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication.
• B. You should take this medication at bedtime to help promote sleep.
• C. You will have fewer urinary adverse effects if you urinate just before taking this medication.
• D. You'll need to wear sunglasses when outdoors due to the light sensitivity caused by this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include in the teaching is 'You may have a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication.' One of the potential adverse effects of fluoxetine and other SSRIs is a decreased desire for intimacy. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client about this possible side effect to enhance understanding and promote informed decision-making. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not relate to common side effects of Fluoxetine that the nurse should include in the teaching.

5. A client has a new prescription for Zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Notify the provider if you plan to become pregnant.
• B. Take the medication 1 hour before planning to go to sleep.
• C. Allow at least 6 hours for sleep when taking zolpidem.
• D. Do not take zolpidem with a bedtime snack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Zolpidem is classified as Pregnancy Risk Category C. It is important for the client to inform the provider if they plan to become pregnant because the medication may need to be adjusted or changed to ensure the safety of the fetus. This communication allows for appropriate monitoring and adjustments to be made to the treatment plan. Choice B is incorrect because zolpidem should be taken just before going to bed, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is incorrect as zolpidem is a short-acting medication, and it does not require a full 6 hours for sleep. Choice D is incorrect because zolpidem can be taken with or without food, so taking it with a bedtime snack is not contraindicated.

Similar Questions