a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension which of the following instructions should the nurse inclu
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting clonidine therapy for hypertension is to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known. Clonidine can cause drowsiness, so it is important for the client to refrain from activities that require alertness until they are aware of how the medication affects them. Choice A is incorrect because a rash is not a common side effect of clonidine. Choice B is incorrect as increased salivation is not an expected side effect of clonidine. Choice D is also incorrect as dry mouth is a common side effect of clonidine, but it is not a reason to stop the medication unless severe or bothersome. Therefore, the priority instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known to ensure safety.

2. A client has Diabetes Mellitus, Pulmonary Tuberculosis, and a new prescription for Isoniazid. Which of the following supplements should the nurse expect to administer to prevent an adverse effect of INH?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pyridoxine is administered with Isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy, a common adverse effect of the drug. It is essential to provide this supplement to the client to minimize the risk of developing this adverse effect. Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) is not typically given to prevent INH adverse effects. Folic acid and Cyanocobalamin are not commonly administered with INH for this purpose.

3. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer atenolol (Tenormin) to a client with angina. Which vital sign would cause the healthcare professional to question administering this drug?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker medication that can lower heart rate. A pulse of 52 beats per minute is relatively low and administering atenolol could further decrease the heart rate, potentially leading to bradycardia. Monitoring the pulse rate and holding the medication if the pulse is below the prescribed parameters is crucial to prevent adverse effects such as bradycardia and hypotension.

4. A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.

5. A client has a new prescription for Ramelteon and is receiving teaching from a nurse. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods while taking this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fried chicken. High-fat foods like fried chicken can prolong the absorption of Ramelteon, potentially reducing its effectiveness. It is important to avoid such foods to ensure the medication works as intended.

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