Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Discontinue the medication if a rash develops.
• B. Expect increased salivation during the first few weeks of therapy.
• C. Avoid driving until the client's reaction to the medication is known.
• D. Stop the medication if you experience a dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting clonidine therapy for hypertension is to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known. Clonidine can cause drowsiness, so it is important for the client to refrain from activities that require alertness until they are aware of how the medication affects them. Choice A is incorrect because a rash is not a common side effect of clonidine. Choice B is incorrect as increased salivation is not an expected side effect of clonidine. Choice D is also incorrect as dry mouth is a common side effect of clonidine, but it is not a reason to stop the medication unless severe or bothersome. Therefore, the priority instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known to ensure safety.

2. Before administering lithium to a client with bipolar disorder who has been taking the medication for 1 year, the nurse should check to see that which of the following tests has been completed?

• A. Thyroid hormone assay
• B. Liver function tests
• C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
• D. Brain natriuretic peptide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the thyroid hormone assay. Long-term lithium use can result in thyroid dysfunction, making it crucial to monitor the client's thyroid function regularly to detect any abnormalities early and prevent potential complications. Liver function tests (choice B) are not specifically associated with lithium therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (choice C) is a nonspecific test for inflammation and not directly related to lithium therapy. Brain natriuretic peptide (choice D) is a test used to diagnose heart failure and is not relevant to monitoring lithium therapy.

3. A client is to receive Tetracaine before a Bronchoscopy. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns.
• B. Monitor the insertion site for a hematoma.
• C. Palpate the bladder to detect urinary retention.
• D. Maintain the client on bed rest for 12 hours following the procedure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include in the plan of care is to keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns. Tetracaine can affect the gag reflex, so it is important to prevent aspiration by maintaining the client NPO until the pharyngeal response is normal, which typically takes about 1 hour. Monitoring for the return of the gag reflex is crucial to prevent complications from aspiration during the first oral intake after the procedure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the effects of Tetracaine or the bronchoscopy procedure.

4. A client has a prescription for long-term use of oral prednisone for the treatment of chronic asthma. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Nervousness
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is weight gain. Oral prednisone can lead to weight gain and fluid retention due to its sodium and water retention effects. Monitoring weight changes is crucial to identify and manage this adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because oral prednisone is not typically associated with nervousness, bradycardia, or constipation as common adverse effects. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring weight gain in clients prescribed long-term oral prednisone therapy.

5. A client with HIV is beginning therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Ringing in the ears
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to suppress bone marrow function, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequently causing fatigue due to anemia. Monitoring for fatigue is essential to ensure early detection and management of this adverse effect.

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