a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for clonidine which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can cause a reduction in salivary flow, leading to dry mouth. This symptom can be managed by increasing fluid intake or using sugar-free gum or candy to stimulate saliva production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While drowsiness and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine, dry mouth is more commonly reported. Weight gain is not typically associated with Clonidine use.

2. A healthcare professional is educating clients in an outpatient facility about the use of Insulin to treat type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. For which of the following types of insulin should the professional inform the clients to expect a peak effect 1 to 5 hr after administration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Regular insulin. Regular insulin, also known as short-acting insulin, typically exhibits a peak effect around 1 to 5 hours following administration. This rapid onset and peak effect make it suitable for managing postprandial glucose levels. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced peak effect, making it unsuitable for rapid glucose control within 1 to 5 hours. NPH insulin has an intermediate duration of action and a different peak time frame. Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that peaks within 30 minutes to 2.5 hours after administration, not within the 1 to 5-hour range.

3. A client is receiving discharge instructions for a new prescription of Prednisone. Which of the following dietary instructions should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Prednisone, there is a risk of potassium depletion due to the medication. Therefore, it is essential to increase the intake of potassium-rich foods such as bananas, oranges, and spinach to help maintain adequate potassium levels in the body and prevent complications associated with low potassium levels. Choice B and D are incorrect as there is no specific need to increase dairy products or decrease protein intake with Prednisone. Choice C is also incorrect as avoiding foods high in vitamin K is more relevant for clients taking anticoagulants like warfarin.

4. A client has a new diagnosis of Fibromyalgia. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Duloxetine. Duloxetine is commonly used to treat fibromyalgia as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. It is also indicated for depression and diabetic peripheral neuropathy. Colchicine, Hydroxychloroquine, and Auranofin are not typically prescribed for fibromyalgia. Colchicine is primarily used to treat gout, Hydroxychloroquine for conditions like malaria and rheumatoid arthritis, and Auranofin for rheumatoid arthritis.

5. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I am frequently constipated.' Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down intestinal motility, leading to constipation as a side effect. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with adverse effects of Verapamil. Increased urination is not a common side effect, skin peeling is not related to Verapamil use, and ringing in the ears is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.

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