a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for clonidine which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can cause a reduction in salivary flow, leading to dry mouth. This symptom can be managed by increasing fluid intake or using sugar-free gum or candy to stimulate saliva production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While drowsiness and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine, dry mouth is more commonly reported. Weight gain is not typically associated with Clonidine use.

2. When teaching a client with a prescription for Cephalexin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed with Cephalexin is to complete the full course of medication. This is crucial to ensure the infection is completely treated and to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking Cephalexin with an antacid is generally not recommended as it may reduce its effectiveness. While dairy products can interfere with certain antibiotics, they do not have a direct interaction with Cephalexin. Stools turning black is not an expected side effect of Cephalexin.

3. Which drug class has been found to decrease mortality if given within 8 hours of an MI due to a decrease in cardiac workload?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Beta-adrenergic blockers have been shown to decrease mortality when administered within 8 hours of a myocardial infarction (MI). They do so by reducing cardiac workload, which helps improve outcomes post-MI. These drugs work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart, leading to decreased heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial oxygen demand, thereby protecting the heart muscle from further damage. This makes them a crucial part of the treatment regimen for acute coronary syndromes like MI.

4. A healthcare provider is administering a Dopamine infusion at a low dose to a client who has severe heart failure. Which of the following findings is an expected effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dopamine, when administered at a low dose, acts on beta1 receptors in the heart, leading to increased myocardial contractility. This positive inotropic effect results in improved cardiac output, which is beneficial for a client with severe heart failure. Dopamine does not typically cause lowered heart rate, decreased conduction through the AV node, or vasoconstriction of renal blood vessels at low doses.

5. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's health record notes a new prescription for Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The healthcare professional should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A routine prescription indicates that the medication is to be administered on a regular schedule, typically daily, without a specified termination date or a specific number of doses. In this case, Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily is to be given regularly until the healthcare provider decides to discontinue it. This type of prescription is common for medications that are part of the client's ongoing treatment regimen. The other choices are incorrect: 'Single' does not provide information about the frequency or duration of administration, 'Stat' indicates an urgent, one-time administration, and 'Standing' refers to a prescription that is automatically renewed without the need for a new order for each administration.

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