a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for clonidine which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can cause a reduction in salivary flow, leading to dry mouth. This symptom can be managed by increasing fluid intake or using sugar-free gum or candy to stimulate saliva production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While drowsiness and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine, dry mouth is more commonly reported. Weight gain is not typically associated with Clonidine use.

2. A client is prescribed Ciprofloxacin and seeks guidance from a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.' Ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products due to the interference of calcium with medication absorption. Taking Ciprofloxacin 1 hour before or 2 hours after consuming dairy products ensures optimal effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because Ciprofloxacin is usually taken on an empty stomach or with a light meal, not necessarily with heavy meals. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific instruction to take Ciprofloxacin at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because there is no need to increase potassium-rich foods intake specifically related to Ciprofloxacin use.

3. A client is being taught about Terbutaline. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors, leading to uterine smooth muscle relaxation and stopping contractions. Therefore, the client demonstrating understanding by recognizing that the medication will stop contractions is the most accurate response. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Terbutaline is primarily used to inhibit contractions in preterm labor, not prevent vaginal bleeding, promote blood flow to the baby, or increase prostaglandin production.

4. When starting amitriptyline, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client starts taking amitriptyline, an important adverse effect to monitor for is urinary retention. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention. It is crucial to educate the client on recognizing and reporting this adverse effect to their healthcare provider. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline and is more associated with other medications. Bradycardia is a possible adverse effect of amitriptyline, but urinary retention is a more common and significant concern. Dry cough is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.

5. A client with a prescription for Vasopressin to treat Diabetes Insipidus is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Vasopressin can cause vasoconstriction, potentially leading to chest pain. It is crucial for the client to inform their healthcare provider immediately if they experience chest pain while on Vasopressin therapy to address any potential cardiovascular complications promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While maintaining adequate hydration is essential with Vasopressin therapy due to its antidiuretic effect, increasing water intake is not the most critical aspect to monitor. Reducing sodium intake may be beneficial in some cases but is not directly related to the potential side effects of Vasopressin. Taking the medication with food is not a specific instruction for Vasopressin administration.

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