ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test
1. What is the classification for the drug valproate?
- A. Anti-diabetic
- B. Anti-convulsant
- C. Anti-ulcer agent
- D. Anti-hypertensive
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Valproate is classified as an anticonvulsant. It is commonly used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain. Therefore, the correct classification for valproate is as an anticonvulsant. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because valproate is not used to treat diabetes, ulcers, or hypertension.
2. A client has a new prescription for radioactive iodine to treat Hyperthyroidism. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Expect a metallic taste in the mouth.
- B. Avoid contact with pregnant women for 1 week.
- C. Administer iodine solution using a straw.
- D. Take thyroid replacement medication for 3 weeks after treatment.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client undergoes radioactive iodine treatment for hyperthyroidism, they can emit radiation for a short time. To prevent radiation exposure to others, especially pregnant women, infants, and small children, clients should avoid close contact for about 1 week following therapy. This precaution is essential to protect vulnerable individuals from potential harm. Choice A is incorrect because a metallic taste in the mouth is not a common side effect of radioactive iodine treatment. Choice C is incorrect because administering iodine solution using a straw is not a standard practice in this treatment. Choice D is incorrect because taking thyroid replacement medication for 3 weeks after treatment is not a typical instruction associated with radioactive iodine therapy for hyperthyroidism.
3. A client has a new prescription for Hydroxychloroquine to treat Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Nausea
- B. Hair loss
- C. Eye damage
- D. Drowsiness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Eye damage.' Hydroxychloroquine can cause severe adverse effects on the eyes, such as retinopathy, which can lead to permanent visual impairment. It is essential for clients to be aware of this potential adverse effect and report any changes in vision promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although nausea, hair loss, and drowsiness can occur with Hydroxychloroquine, they are not as severe or critical as the risk of eye damage.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?
- A. Butorphanol has a lower risk of abuse than morphine.
- B. Butorphanol causes a lower incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
- C. Butorphanol can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
- D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist/antagonist that can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals. Symptoms of abstinence syndrome can include abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. This occurs because butorphanol competes with and displaces opioid agonists from receptors, leading to withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol does not have a lower risk of abuse than morphine, it can cause respiratory depression similar to other opioids, and although it is an opioid antagonist, it does not get reversed by opioid antagonists.
5. A client is taking Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
- C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
- D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is considered elevated and should be reported to the provider for further assessment and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not directly affected by Spironolactone and do not typically require immediate reporting unless there are other underlying issues or specific instructions for those electrolytes.
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