Nursing Elites

1. What is the classification for the drug valproate?

• A. Anti-diabetic
• B. Anti-convulsant
• C. Anti-ulcer agent
• D. Anti-hypertensive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Valproate is classified as an anticonvulsant. It is commonly used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain. Therefore, the correct classification for valproate is as an anticonvulsant. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because valproate is not used to treat diabetes, ulcers, or hypertension.

2. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Remove the patch each evening.
• B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
• C. Take off the nitroglycerin patch if a headache occurs.
• D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to remove the nitroglycerin patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a 10- to 12-hour nitrate-free period daily, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to nitroglycerin. Cutting the patch in half is not recommended because it can alter the dosing and absorption rate, leading to inadequate symptom control. Taking off the patch for a headache is not necessary as headaches are a common side effect that may improve with continued use. Applying a new patch every 48 hours is not correct as it may not provide continuous symptom relief for angina.

3. What is a common side effect that typically occurs with the initial therapy of Nitroglycerine as a result of increased vasodilation?

• A. Abdominal cramps
• B. Calf pain
• C. Headache
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Headache is a common side effect associated with the initial therapy of Nitroglycerine due to its vasodilatory properties. The vasodilation caused by Nitroglycerine leads to relaxation of blood vessels, including those in the head, which can result in headaches. This side effect is considered normal and is often transient, diminishing with continued use of the medication.

4. A client is prescribed Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?

• A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
• C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
• D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, causing potassium retention, potentially leading to elevated potassium levels. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), indicating hyperkalemia, a serious condition. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels promptly to the healthcare provider are crucial to prevent potential complications. Sodium, chloride, and calcium levels are not directly influenced by Spironolactone, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

5. A client with a new prescription for Verapamil to control hypertension is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• B. I can expect my heart rate to increase while taking this medication.
• C. This medication will cause my urine to turn orange.
• D. I will stop taking this medication if I experience headaches.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Grapefruit juice can increase blood levels of verapamil, leading to increased effects and potentially serious side effects such as hypotension or bradycardia. It is crucial for the client to avoid grapefruit juice while taking Verapamil to prevent these adverse reactions. Choice B is incorrect because verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that typically lowers heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as verapamil does not cause urine discoloration. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly without consulting a healthcare provider can be dangerous.

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