Nursing Elites

1. During transfusion of a unit of whole blood, a nurse is assessing a client who develops a cough, shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Epinephrine
• B. Lorazepam
• C. Furosemide
• D. Diphenhydramine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's symptoms indicate circulatory overload, which can occur during blood transfusions. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly prescribed in such cases to help relieve manifestations of circulatory overload by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid volume. Epinephrine is used for severe allergic reactions, lorazepam for anxiety or seizures, and diphenhydramine for mild allergic reactions or as a sedative. Therefore, the correct choice is Furosemide (C) to manage circulatory overload during a blood transfusion.

2. A client is taking Amiodarone to treat Atrial Fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of Amiodarone toxicity?

• A. Light yellow urine
• B. Report of tinnitus
• C. Productive cough
• D. Blue-gray skin discoloration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Blue-gray skin discoloration is a common sign of Amiodarone toxicity, known as blue-gray discoloration, which can affect areas like the face, neck, or hands. It is important to monitor for this side effect, as it can be a visible indicator of potential toxicity. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Light yellow urine is not typically associated with Amiodarone toxicity. Tinnitus is not a common manifestation of Amiodarone toxicity. A productive cough is not a recognized symptom of Amiodarone toxicity.

3. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Capecitabine is known to cause neutropenia as a common adverse effect due to bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections and requires close monitoring to prevent complications. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use, making them incorrect choices.

4. A client is starting a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Rise slowly from a sitting position.
• C. Avoid salt substitutes.
• D. Avoid exposure to sunlight.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting enalapril is to avoid salt substitutes. Salt substitutes may contain potassium, which could lead to elevated potassium levels when combined with enalapril, increasing the risk of hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because there is no specific need to take enalapril with food, rise slowly from a sitting position, or avoid exposure to sunlight when taking this medication.

5. When teaching the family of a child with Cystic Fibrosis about a new prescription for Acetylcysteine, which information should the nurse include?

• A. Expect this medication to suppress your cough.
• B. Expect this medication to smell like rotten eggs.
• C. Expect this medication to cause euphoria.
• D. Expect this medication to turn your urine orange.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Expect this medication to smell like rotten eggs.' Acetylcysteine contains sulfur, which gives it a characteristic rotten-egg odor. This odor is normal and expected when using this medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Acetylcysteine is not used to suppress cough, cause euphoria, or change urine color. Educating the family on the distinct smell of Acetylcysteine will help them understand its characteristics and alleviate concerns about the odor.

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