a nurse is assessing a client during transfusion of a unit of whole bloo the client develops a cough shortness of breath elevated blood pressure and d
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. During transfusion of a unit of whole blood, a nurse is assessing a client who develops a cough, shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's symptoms indicate circulatory overload, which can occur during blood transfusions. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly prescribed in such cases to help relieve manifestations of circulatory overload by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid volume. Epinephrine is used for severe allergic reactions, lorazepam for anxiety or seizures, and diphenhydramine for mild allergic reactions or as a sedative. Therefore, the correct choice is Furosemide (C) to manage circulatory overload during a blood transfusion.

2. A client is to receive Pamidronate for bone pain related to cancer. What precaution should the nurse take during the administration of Pamidronate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pamidronate is typically administered through IV infusion, which can cause irritation to veins. The nurse should frequently assess the IV site for thrombophlebitis during the administration to promptly detect any potential complications related to the infusion. Inspecting the skin for redness and irritation around the injection site (Choice A) is not directly related to IV infusion. Instructing the client to lie down after oral administration (Choice C) is not necessary for IV administration. Monitoring for signs of anaphylaxis after an intramuscular injection (Choice D) is not relevant for an IV infusion of Pamidronate.

3. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Timolol how to insert eye drops, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct way to administer eye drops is by instructing the client to drop the prescribed amount of medication into the center of the conjunctival sac. This technique helps in proper distribution and absorption of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as pressing the inside corner of the eye is not necessary. Choice B is incorrect because applying eye drops directly on the cornea can cause irritation and discomfort. Choice D is incorrect as wiping the eyes immediately after application can remove the medication and reduce its effectiveness.

4. A client is taking Sucralfate PO for Peptic Ulcer Disease and has a new prescription for phenytoin to control seizures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sucralfate can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin. To prevent this interaction, the client should allow a 2-hour interval between taking sucralfate and phenytoin. This timing helps to ensure adequate absorption and effectiveness of both medications without compromising therapeutic outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking an antacid with sucralfate, taking sucralfate with a glass of milk, and chewing sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing do not address the need for a 2-hour interval between these medications to prevent interference with phenytoin absorption.

5. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored by the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Prednisone, monitoring serum glucose levels is essential. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to hyperglycemia. Therefore, regular monitoring of serum glucose helps in detecting and managing any potential hyperglycemic effects of the medication. Monitoring serum potassium, calcium, or sodium is not typically required when a client is on Prednisone unless there are specific risk factors or concerns related to these electrolytes.

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